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Old 06-07-2013, 05:38 AM   #51
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A significant other option (beyond the dichotomy proposed) is that the then Christianity - that Arius, Lucian of Antioch, & bishop Eusebius of Nicomedia were a part of - had a more vague / less corporeal saviour than was later proposed.

ie. the story evolved from a proposal of a saviour to concretion of one.
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Old 06-07-2013, 05:46 AM   #52
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Where did pagan philosophers discuss the substance of Jesus, which was a uniquely Christian concept?
According to the source I have provided (Philip of Side) it is reasonable to assume the possibility that the philosophers discussed the Holy Writ of the Pagan Roman Empire at Nicaea.
It is reasonable if and only if the Greek word translated as "philosophers" (which is what, BTW? Do you know?) has no other meaning or connotation than someone schooled in pagan philosophy (wasn't Justin and Athanasius?) and was never applied to any pre-nicean Christian writer or to any within the orthodox party. Until you show that this is indeed the case, you are engaging in petitio princippi not to mention eisegeses.

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These philosophers are clearly opposed to the Bishops.
Not all the bishops. As Philip himself testifies, they held the same theological views about the logos/son as did Eusebius of Nicomedia and Theognis of Nicaea.

Sorry, but you are once more not only engaged in logical fallacies, but in skewing the evidence to fit your thesis.


Jeffrey (who is still waiting for you to tell us not only what the "signature of satire" looked like formally and linguistically and stylistically, but to whom Constantine was referring when at Decretis 40 27 he says σὲ τὴν κατὰ τὸν τόπον κινεῖσθαι, δέσποτα, κίνησιν οἴεται).
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Old 06-07-2013, 05:53 AM   #53
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A significant other option (beyond the dichotomy proposed) is that the then Christianity - that Arius, Lucian of Antioch, & bishop Eusebius of Nicomedia were a part of - had a more vague / less corporeal saviour than was later proposed.
And your evidence for this is what? What texts from Lucian or Arius or Eusebius of Nicomedia (or their enemies) can you bring forth to show that these fellows did not accept the incarnation, but believed only in vague/less corporeal saviour that was later (when exactly?) "proposed".

I suspect that you've never read much if any of the primary sources that detail what these men believed. Am I correct in my suspicion?

Jeffrey
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Old 06-07-2013, 11:14 AM   #54
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MM, has your website been fixed yet??

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My website has been hacked and infected with malware.

Please do not visit it.

I have alerted the operational support.


Thanks for the link Toto.


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The wayback machine has a copy:

Archived 4 9 2013

Your argument with regard to Arius is that Constantine completely rewrote the history, etc. I think the rest of it has been discussed here or in another thread.
That is not the argument presented in the essay.

The key term is identity fraud.

The argument presented has an abstract which reads as follows:










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The idea that Arius did not even claim to be a Christian, but was rewritten in history by Constantine and his henchmen to be an unorthodox Christian, has no support anywhere. It makes no sense.
It makes no sense to me that there were

•(1) The Two Ammonii - Ammonius Saccas the Platonist and Ammonius the Christian

•(2) The Two Origen's - Origen the Platonist and Origen the Christian.

•(3) The Two Anatolii - Anatolius of Alexandria the Platonist and Anatolius the Christian Bishop


What makes perfect sense to me is that Eusebius borrowed a few names from the high profile lineage of the Platonist philosophers and theologians (and mathematicians) to become part of his lineage of Christian bishops, for whom we have no evidence in the archaeology or anywhere outside of Eusebius's thesis in history about the "Early church".

Do you think these name duplications are a coincidence?

I don't.

I am naturally very suspicious about Eusebius.

He used fraud in the service of religion more than once.






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Old 06-07-2013, 11:58 AM   #55
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Mountainman,

You may have already read this and rejected it as being outdated, but have a look at it, anyway.


Mr. Gibson may be willing to explain the Greek words appearing in the text and we all may enjoy reading about the Christian problem of subordination.

Studies of Arianism, Henry Melvill Gwatkin


http://www.propheticvoice.co.uk/down...%20Gwatkin.pdf
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Old 06-07-2013, 12:14 PM   #56
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Mountainman,

You may have already read this and rejected it as being outdated, but have a look at it, anyway.


Mr. Gibson may be willing to explain the Greek words appearing in the text and we all may enjoy reading about the Christian problem of subordination.

Studies of Arianism, Henry Melvill Gwatkin


http://www.propheticvoice.co.uk/down...%20Gwatkin.pdf

It appears that you failed to notice that I already mentioned this (and another) study of Arius and Arianism by Gwatkin here.

Jeffrey
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Old 06-07-2013, 12:35 PM   #57
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Mountaiman.

You were right to ignore it; you should now extend you indifference. There is nothing of any interest here.
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Old 06-07-2013, 01:58 PM   #58
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Old 06-07-2013, 06:14 PM   #59
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The first bit “Away! I do not wish God to appear to be subject to suffering of outrages ..." seems to me to be an indirect reference to the Canonical Story of the Jesus/God figure. In the canon (i.e. in the Bible widely published and supported by Bullneck) the Jesus/God figure gets a raw deal in the crucifixion. Arius does not like this story. He does not wish his concept of God to be the subject of suffering and outrages.
Could you do two things for me, please?

(1) tell me what words in the Greek text of this passage stand behind the expression "to be subject to [the] suffering of outrages" and whether the word translated here as "suffering" is a noun or a verb, and whether there is the Greek equivalent of "and" between the Greek words for "suffering" and "outrages" as you seem to think there is when you say that Arius "does not wish his concept of God to be the subject of suffering and outrages"?

I know not the Greek Jeffrey. You already know this.

Please make your point.



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(2) show me on the basis of the language and the syntax of the Greek text of this passage me how Arius refers to the crucifixion and how Constantine acknowledges this and/or points it out when he goes on, as he does, to list what Arius does to avoid seeing God subjected to outrages?
The basis for my thinking that Arius refers to the canonical crucifixion when Constantine asserts (or reconstructs) that Arius states: “Away! I do not wish God to appear to be subject to suffering of outrages ..." is not contained in the text.

The basis for my thinking that Arius is refers to the canonical crucifixion with this statement is that the entire occasion of Nicaea was to introduce the imperial support to the NT Bible (physically at that time the Constantine Bible) as the holy writ at the focus of a centralised monotheistic state religion.

All the citizens in the (pagan) Roman Empire at that time would have been aware of the proclamation of the new kingdom of the new god and were essentially being FORCED into it. I see this as the novel political reality in the Roman Empire c.325 CE.

The pagans were taken by surprise with this new god in the form of a dead Jew on a stick. Any reasonable analyst of such a situation IMO must expect a reaction from the pagans. WHERE IS THIS REACTION to the bible?

I see Arius's statement as a reaction to the new God STORY where the GOOD GOD was subject to suffering of outrages.



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Old 06-07-2013, 06:20 PM   #60
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Hi Duvduv,

The operations support have advised they have fixed the hack. I have requested a review by Google but this may take a few days.

Thanks.



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MM, has your website been fixed yet??

Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
My website has been hacked and infected with malware.

Please do not visit it.

I have alerted the operational support.


Thanks for the link Toto.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto View Post
The wayback machine has a copy:

Archived 4 9 2013
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