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Old 05-27-2013, 10:37 AM   #11
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I am most intrigued by the reference to the gospel "COMPOSED" by Paul without pointing at all to WHAT gospel was "composed." Then there is the reference to the predecessor named "JOHN."

The author of the Muratorian Canon must have forgotten that no one named John as a predecessor of Paul is mentioned anywhere in the epistles. And the same author surely must have known that by virtue of his revelation Galatians Paul could never have had a "predecessor" anyway.

And what gospel did Paul "compose." Did the author going under the name of Origen have access to the Gospel according to Paul?! It's really a huge stretch to argue that the gospel of Luke was Paul's gospel when nowhere does "Paul" cite verses from the gospel known subsequently as the gospel of Luke.

Well, these people who claimed to all be on the same page evidently didn't check through things clearly enough to avoid these problems.......
That is precisely why it can be deduced that the Pauline Corpus is historically and chronological bogus when for hundreds of years the history of Paul and the composition of his letters cannot be reconciled.

It must not be forgotten that the first to mention the Pauline Corpus also claimed Jesus was crucified about 20 years AFTER the 15th year of Tiberius or around c 48-50 CE which utterly destroys the credibility of the Pauline Corpus--See Against Heresies 2.22.

Astonishingly, the people in Asia claimed John told them that Jesus was crucified at about 50 years of age and John was alive up to the time of Trajan c 98-117 based on "Against Heresies".

Against Heresies 2.22
Quote:
Now, that the first stage of early life embraces thirty years,(1) and that this extends onwards to the fortieth year, every one will admit; but from the fortieth and fiftieth year a man begins to decline towards old age, which our Lord possessed while He still fulfilled the office of a Teacher, even as the Gospel and all the elders testify; those who were conversant in Asia with John, the disciple of the Lord, [affirming] that John conveyed to them that information.....
How in the world could Paul preach Christ crucified in the time of King Aretas C 37-41 CE when up to c 98-117 CE it was taught that Jesus was crucified about c 48-50 CE?

It is clear that in antiquity it was not known or established when Paul lived, when he died and what he wrote.

And, up to the mid 4th century, there was NO known non-apologetic writer who mentioned Paul and Jesus in the time of Tiberius--See Against the Galileans.
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Old 05-27-2013, 12:04 PM   #12
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Looks like one version of the Jesus story had a scenario involving a "disciple" named John (as opposed to Peter or Paul) whereby "Paul" was the successor. Imagine an alternative Christianity of the Empire whereby everybody lauds a "trinity" of Jesus, John and Paul. Hmm.....maybe that's part of the picture of how the Baptist got a role, he had the name John.

In any event, here you had the heresiologists such as Origen and Irenaeus (and Justin) telling us about the importance of a John, and yet this John was not an important figure in the texts that these so-called heresiologists believed in. Looks like there was poor supervision in the scriptoriums.......
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Old 05-27-2013, 02:41 PM   #13
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The opposite is true of the 'Pauline Epistles' they know of the Gospels (and Revelations) 'KEEP the Commandments' sayings, and set out to deliberately overturn and supplant the words of 'Jesus', with the no Law antinomian theology of 'Paul'.
What verses would show that "Paul" knew of the canonical gospels?
'Paul' (and all of the pseudo-'Paul's') was careful not to provide much that could be traced to having knowledge of the Gospels content. As doing so would make a lie out of his claim that no man had taught him the Gospel of Jesus.
Ya gotta like the ingenuity of this wacky notion. Paul shows almost no knowledge of the gospel, so somehow he musta known about it and was pretending not to know.

:banghead: :banghead: :banghead: :banghead:
Once the lie was asserted that 'Paul' had received direct communications and an exclusive 'gospel' from 'Jesus'
You assert that it's a lie, ie neither real or mistake. Any logic built on the unsupported assertion has no weight.

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and that;
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I certify to you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.
Once he had laid that whopper...
Calling things "whoppers" (still with this assertion of "lie") might cause you blowback.

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...he could not very well admit that he had ever learned anything about 'Jesus' from THE APOSTLES and 'that WAY' ....which 'Paul' admits to having persecuted beyond measure.

1Cr 1:2, 15:9, Gal 1:13, 1:23, 1 Th 2:14-15 must zoom right over your head.
Your inability to read the text for what it says doesn't zoom right over my head.

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The Apostolic congregations in Judea...
This is not a lie or a whopper: it's you in your persecuting zeal to package what was said with your own bias. It is utter balls to call them the "Apostolic congregations in Judea". The text Gal 1:22 only talks of "congregations in Judea in christ", messianic groups. You hold the church's hand and retroject "apostolic" into the text and pervert it.

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...were already -in Christ Jesus- before 'Paul' ever 'converted' or had any of his wonky claimed 'visions' and conversations with a dead and risen 'Jesus'.
It would be good if you read the text that is there and not just the one you want. You've insinuated "Jesus" into this mix, when you haven't established its validity in the pre-Pauline context.

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The congregations in Judea already had, and had long been preaching 'the Gospel of 'Jesus', and upsetting the Jewish establishment.
That is your belief, but it isn't in the text.

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That is the reason why 'Paul' was persecuting them. (according to the story.)
(See previous comment.)

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Do you have some other reason for 'Saul/Paul' to be hunting down, 'persecuting and wasting' the church "beyond measure" ?
Let's hear it.
You're conflating the later Acts Paul with the writer of Galatians, who never calls himself "Saul". You already understand the problem of translating εκκλησια as "church", but here you fall back on the anachronism. You need to show that those messianists Paul pissed off were believers of Jesus. Good luck with that, buddy.

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So you should not expect to find much in the way of obvious references to the Gospel stories.
'Cuz that'd give Shesh's game away. Paul can't show the world that he knew too much of the gospel.
No, it would give the paper 'Paul's' deceiving game away.
Unlike 'Paul', old Sheshbazzar has no game. no followers, no intentions to build an organization that will set up statues in his memory, 'collects' no money from no one, and being anonymous, has nothing to gain or to lose by calling the shots as he sees them.
This non sequitur seems to work under the misguided notion that games need followers and being remembered. You haven't stopped playing games here, Shesh, since you got here. The more recent revealing stuff about your beliefs related to sacred names should help you see that you have been playing a game of presenting yourself in one light in the forum while holding a quite different inner light. You're a game player, Shesh. And you're running with one now, this comfortable nonsense about the late corrupted church writing the corpus of Pauline texts, that's not late corrupted when it doesn't suit you.

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Although the 1 Cor 11:23-24 communion ritual with its 'that same night in which he was betrayed' is plucked from Luke 22.
Paul is supposed to be avoiding knowledge of the gospel, yet makes the blunder of using a literary reference to Luke's gospel.

This stuff is pretty daft, isn't it?
With God alone knows how many pseudo-Paul's, its little wonder that one would blunder, and this ritual was something the Catholic church wanted badly, and to be able to exert her 'official' control over, forcing all to come to her 'apostolic' 'bishops' for this ritual communion, ...and fleecing.
Umm, you mean they get mixed up with what the doctrine of their own day is. You're having credibility issues, Shesh.

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(there is no story of Jesus ever being betrayed by anyone on some 'same night' in heaven. The story is set on earth with an earthly human 'betrayer', it is the story of Luke 22.)
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'Paul' could not admit to knowing the content of the Gospel's because doing so would contradict and prove to be a lie his claim that he received his Gospel by exclusive revelation from the 'Lord Jesus' when in fact he had learned all about 'Jesus' from the Christian believers that were before him.
'Paul' would have gotten nowhere with such a claim if he had not been the invention and tool of the latter church orthodoxy Establishment.
Wouldn't inventing an early figure who received foundational knowledge and instructions through personal revelation render Jesus' teaching and comission to His apostles as a bit redundant?
The 'Pauline Epistles' gospel was forged by the corrupted late church to accomplish three major objectives.
1. To make Paul anti-trinitarian;
Not every 'orthodox Catholic Doctrine' was yet settled when the 'Pauline epistles' were being forged.
Oh, so it's not the late corrupted church, you mentioned earlier. Convenient. When an assertion doesn't work, you just reshape it at your leisure.

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2. To let Paul ridicule the bishop of Rome;
There was still vying for power and authority over the church going on in Rome
when the 'Pauline epistles' were being forged, the forgers evidently were not pleased with the bishop then in power, and got their 'dig' in.
Yeah, right. Not late corrupted church again. This Paul gets shifted through time with gay abandon.

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and 3. To repudiate the apostles, whose succession the corrupted late church relies on.
The latter church only wanted to claim succession from THE Apostles, this corrupt latter church however DID NOT want The DOCTRINE of THE Apostles of the assemblies in Judea, which was and remains "KEEP THE COMMANDMENTS OF GOD -and- the testimony of 'JESUS'; "KEEP THE COMMANDMENTS"
It's gone from "late" to "latter" with the shifting sands of exigency. Isn't the bishop of Rome supposed to be one of "THE Apostles"? You know the one that Paul ridicules for being wishy-washy in his eating habits and steafastness of his commitments.

Would you like to try again minus the ass-covering bullshit?

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Yes, Paul so well reflects the later church and its doctriners. This view that Shesh espouses is just plain old horseshit. And a little grasp on reality would allow him to see it.
You have my pity spin. Maybe if you prayed more, 'JESUS' would heal your blindness.
Thanks, Shesh. I appreciate it and perhaps, if you prayed for me, "'JESUS' would heal your blindness."
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Old 05-27-2013, 03:07 PM   #14
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This is getting too long winded. Believe whatever you want.
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Old 05-27-2013, 03:12 PM   #15
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How in the world could Paul preach Christ crucified in the time of King Aretas C 37-41 CE when up to c 98-117 CE it was taught that Jesus was crucified about c 48-50 CE?
I'm getting a bit lost. Questions for anyone:
  • How long after Christ's crucifixion did Paul convert? - not obvious to me from Acts.
  • Could the 37-41AD breadbasket incident in Aretas' Damascus have happened during the three years prior to Paul going to Jerusalem (Galatians) rather than shortly after his conversion (Acts)? - the former would clearly put more distance between 37-41 and Christ's crucifixion.
  • The famine prophesised in Acts 11 (mere two chapters after Paul's conversion) - the dispciples swift provison of aid indicates it was imminent. If this famine happened in AD46-7 as chronicles report, where does this leave the dates of Paul's conversion and Christ's crucifixion?
  • This thing about Christ dying at 50 y.o. - wouldn't this contradict the gospels in any way?
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Old 05-27-2013, 03:25 PM   #16
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This is getting too long winded.
Retracts head. The view of one's own heels isn't that thrilling.

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Believe whatever you want.
I try not to let beliefs get in the way, Shesh. You should try it.
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Old 05-27-2013, 03:48 PM   #17
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How in the world could Paul preach Christ crucified in the time of King Aretas C 37-41 CE when up to c 98-117 CE it was taught that Jesus was crucified about c 48-50 CE?
I'm getting a bit lost. Questions for anyone:
  • How long after Christ's crucifixion did Paul convert? - not obvious to me from Acts.
Acts is fictional, and there is no clue there.

Quote:
  • Could the 37-41AD breadbasket incident in Aretas' Damascus have happened during the three years prior to Paul going to Jerusalem (Galatians) rather than shortly after his conversion (Acts)? - the former would clearly put more distance between 37-41 and Christ's crucifixion.
Critical scholars have tried to pin down the dates of events in Paul's life based on Acts and the epistles, and it turns out to be impossible to pin down.

The reference to Aretas by Paul in his epistle is not clearly historical. Aretas II was not in control of Damascus at any time that makes sense in the usual narrative, and the way Paul tells the story, it could be part of an allegorical or coded narrative (Damascus could be a coded reference to Jerusalem, and Aretas to some other authority figure, escaping through a hole in a wall could be a coded reference to escaping from a legal problem through a loophole.)

The story in Acts is unreliable - it differs significantly from Paul's account.

There are some old threads in the archives on this question. Sorry - I was more up on this at one point.

Quote:
  • The famine prophesized in Acts 11 (mere two chapters after Paul's conversion) - the disciples swift provison of aid indicates it was imminent. If this famine happened in AD46-7 as chronicles report, where does this leave the dates of Paul's conversion and Christ's crucifixion?
  • This thing about Christ dying at 50 y.o. - wouldn't this contradict the gospels in any way?
The indirect reference to Christ being 50 by Irenaeus has other more likely interpretations than as historical evidence for Jesus' crucifixion when he was 50. Unfortunately, aa5874 keeps repeating this, and most of the knowledgeable posters here eventually get tired of explaining this and put him on ignore.
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Old 05-27-2013, 05:04 PM   #18
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...The indirect reference to Christ being 50 by Irenaeus has other more likely interpretations than as historical evidence for Jesus' crucifixion when he was 50. Unfortunately, aa5874 keeps repeating this, and most of the knowledgeable posters here eventually get tired of explaining this and put him on ignore.
I am getting real annoyed by your response you consistently keep on making known errors year after year.

You are not providing any evidence that the Pauline letters were composed at any time so I really don't know why you cannot appreciate that others can produce evidence for their argument that the Pauline writers are NOT credible.

We have "Against Heresies" 2.22 in front of us.

It is simply blatantly erroneous that Irenaeus made an indirect reference to Christ being 50.

It is a 2000 word argument--an Entire chapter of book 2


It can be seen that in "Against Heresies" 2.22 that the author argued agasinst Heretics and also claimed that John, the other Apostles, the Elders, the Gospel told people in ASIA that Jesus was crucified at about 50 years old up to the time of Trajan.

This is an excerpt from "Against Heresies" 2.

Against Heresies 2.22
Quote:
Now, that the first stage of early life embraces thirty years,(1) and that this extends onwards to the fortieth year, every one will admit; but from the fortieth and fiftieth year a man begins to decline towards old age, which our Lord possessed while He still fulfilled the office of a Teacher, even as the Gospel and all the elders testify; those who were conversant in Asia with John, the disciple of the Lord, [affirming] that John conveyed to them that information.(2) And he remained among them up to the times of Trajan.

(3) Some of them, moreover, saw not only John, but the other apostles also, and heard the very same account from them, and bear testimony as to the [validity of] the statement.

Whom then should we rather believe? Whether such men as these, or Ptolemaeus, who never saw the apostles, and who never even in his dreams attained to the slightest trace of an apostle?

For it is altogether unreasonable to suppose that they were mistaken by twenty years, when they wished to prove Him younger than the times of Abraham.

For what they saw, that they also expressed; and He whom they beheld was not a mere phantasm, but an actual being(5) of flesh and blood.

He did not then wont much of being fifty years old;(6) and, in accordance with that fact, they said to Him, "Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast Thou seen Abraham?"

He did not therefore preach only for one year, nor did He suffer in the twelfth month of the year. For the period included between the thirtieth and the fiftieth year can never be regarded as one year....
Against Heresies 2.22 cannot be reconciled with Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline letters.

The Pauline Corpus was composed AFTER c 180 CE or after "Against Heresies" .

It is virtually impossible that Paul was known to have preached Christ crucified since the time of King Aretas c 37-41 CE when the Gospels, John, the other Apostles and the Elders of Asia did convey upto the time of Trajan C 98-117 CE that Jesus was crucified c 48-50 CE.
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Old 05-27-2013, 05:26 PM   #19
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How in the world could Paul preach Christ crucified in the time of King Aretas C 37-41 CE when up to c 98-117 CE it was taught that Jesus was crucified about c 48-50 CE?
I'm getting a bit lost. Questions for anyone:
  • How long after Christ's crucifixion did Paul convert? - not obvious to me from Acts.
  • Could the 37-41AD breadbasket incident in Aretas' Damascus have happened during the three years prior to Paul going to Jerusalem (Galatians) rather than shortly after his conversion (Acts)? - the former would clearly put more distance between 37-41 and Christ's crucifixion.
  • The famine prophesised in Acts 11 (mere two chapters after Paul's conversion) - the dispciples swift provison of aid indicates it was imminent. If this famine happened in AD46-7 as chronicles report, where does this leave the dates of Paul's conversion and Christ's crucifixion?
  • This thing about Christ dying at 50 y.o. - wouldn't this contradict the gospels in any way?
This thing about Christ dying at about 50 years old is not imagination. It is actually a 2000 word argument in "Against Heresies" 2.22.

Now, there is another Apologetic writer who also claimed Jesus did live through ALL the age of this life.

Hippolytus' Refutation of All Heresies"
Quote:
....This Logos we know to have received a body from a virgin, and to have remodelled the old man by a new creation. And we believe the Logos to have passed through every period in this life, in order that He Himself might serve as a law for every age, and that, by being present (among) us, He might exhibit His own manhood as an aim for all men.
Against Heresies" 2.22
Quote:
....Being thirty years old when He came to be baptized, and then possessing the full age of a Master,(5) He came to Jerusalem, so that He might be properly acknowledged(6) by all as a Master. For He did not seem one thing while He was another, as those affirm who describe Him as being man only in appearance; but what He was, that He also appeared to be.

Being a Master, therefore, He also possessed the age of a Master, not despising or evading any condition of humanity, nor setting aside in Himself that law which He had(7) appointed for the human race, but sanctifying every age, by that period corresponding to it which belonged to Himself.
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Old 05-27-2013, 06:00 PM   #20
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This is getting too long winded.
Retracts head. The view of one's own heels isn't that thrilling.

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Believe whatever you want.
I try not to let beliefs get in the way, Shesh. You should try it.
Think whatever you want then.

I know what I think.
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