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Old 07-30-2013, 08:20 AM   #71
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You should be starting to doubt this reference.
I do, and it's on my list to look at someday.

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It always stuns me that scholars can take Josephus nowhere else talking about the messiah (christ), yet doing so in both instances of a reference to Jesus.
It doesn't seem odd to me, as long as Josephus made it clear that Jesus was 'called' Christ.
I hear this double whoosh of the impact of this statement going over your head.

If you are starting to doubt AJ 20.200, this return to acting as if you don't doubt it at all is confusing to me. Whoosh.

"Called christ" is straight out of Matthew 1:16. Why doesn't a christian have difficulty with Josephus who overtly avoided the term "christ" everywhere else suddenly using it in two questionable passages that just so happens to have been written by a Jew about a dead messianic claimant who was obviously--due to his death--not a messiah in the eyes of the Jew. This is so nonsensical a notion for a christian to hold. Whoosh.

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Actually no corroboration involved. We see that it required a later interpretation that accepted the special κυριος bring used for Jesus, leading to the development of Hegesippus's tradition fragment, used by Origen, then inserted into Josephus. This is the churning over of ideas in a developing tradition. AJ 20.200 which originally talked of James and certain others was changed to reflect what Origen got from his reading of Hegesippus.
You seem to not understand what the meaning of 'corroboration' is.
Backatcha.

A quickly grabbed definition:

corroborate: to confirm or support (facts, opinions, etc), esp by providing fresh evidence

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Maybe you meant to say 'proven' instead of 'involved'. The fact that Origen clearly attributes mention of James to Josephus means that either he corroborates James' role correctly or he corroborates it incorrectly. Theories about Origen being 'confused' need some pretty good support to be taken seriously. Maybe that exists..dunno.
Read this old blog entry.
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Old 07-30-2013, 08:23 AM   #72
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Again, there are Two Jameses who were apostles and NONE was called the Lord's brother.
True, but as I showed you there is a decent case to be made for saying that James the Son of Alphaeus was Jesus' cousin, based solely on the Gospels. Since 'cousin' were referred to as 'brothers', the Gospels support the idea that the apostle James Son of Alphaeus may well have been considered a 'brother of Jesus', even if the gospel doesn't explicity say it--it is a reasonable conclusion.


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I am extremely delighted that you say "Paul" considered himself an apostle because you have actually highlighted the fundamental problem with the Pauline Corpus.

The claim that Pauline writers were Apostles is NOT corroborated in the Gospels.
I'm amazed that I have delighted you for a change. However, this doesn't change the fact that in Paul's day an apostle didn't have to be one of the twelve disciples. Thus, the 'brother' James mentioned in Mat and Mark could well have been an apostle, and there is no requirement for him to be one of the Twelve. If Paul's James wasn't James Son of Alphaeus, he still could have been the brother James mentioned in Mat and Mark, thus partial corroboration by the gospels (ie brother Is corroborated, apostle is not although he still could have been an apostle who wasn't one of the twelve disciples).

So, why are you dismissing Gal 1:19 when you have corroboration by gospels, Josephus, Jerome, and Hegessipus?
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Old 07-30-2013, 08:31 AM   #73
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dismissing Gal 1:19 when you have corroboration by gospels, Josephus, Jerome, and Hegessipus?
Umm, I think that shoulda been Origen, not Jerome in that list.

Origen corroborates Hegesippus, but generally contradicts Josephus.
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Old 07-30-2013, 08:33 AM   #74
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It always stuns me that scholars can take Josephus nowhere else talking about the messiah (christ), yet doing so in both instances of a reference to Jesus.
It doesn't seem odd to me, as long as Josephus made it clear that Jesus was 'called' Christ.
I hear this double whoosh of the impact of this statement going over your head.

If you are starting to doubt AJ 20.200, this return to acting as if you don't doubt it at all is confusing to me. Whoosh.
Then the whoosh is going over YOUR head, not mine. I didn't say he DID make it clear. I'm an if-then kind of guy.



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"Called christ" is straight out of Matthew 1:16. Why doesn't a christian have difficulty with Josephus who overtly avoided the term "christ" everywhere else suddenly using it in two questionable passages that just so happens to have been written by a Jew about a dead messianic claimant who was obviously--due to his death--not a messiah in the eyes of the Jew. This is so nonsensical a notion for a christian to hold. Whoosh.
Because if he was CALLED Christ by the Christians then it would be expected that he say so. It doesn't in any way imply that he personally called Jesus "Christ". Whoosh....



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You seem to not understand what the meaning of 'corroboration' is.
Backatcha.

A quickly grabbed definition:

corroborate: to confirm or support (facts, opinions, etc), esp by providing fresh evidence
'support' doesn't mean proof.

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Read this old blog entry.
Too uninterested at the moment given the time and energy, because I want to do a fairly thorough review, including reading what Doherty says about it.
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Old 07-30-2013, 08:57 AM   #75
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It always stuns me that scholars can take Josephus nowhere else talking about the messiah (christ), yet doing so in both instances of a reference to Jesus.
It doesn't seem odd to me, as long as Josephus made it clear that Jesus was 'called' Christ.
I hear this double whoosh of the impact of this statement going over your head.

If you are starting to doubt AJ 20.200, this return to acting as if you don't doubt it at all is confusing to me. Whoosh.
Then the whoosh is going over YOUR head, not mine. I didn't say he DID make it clear. I'm an if-then kind of guy.
Perhaps, you should stick to if-then and don't get into confusing language.

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"Called christ" is straight out of Matthew 1:16. Why doesn't a christian have difficulty with Josephus who overtly avoided the term "christ" everywhere else suddenly using it in two questionable passages that just so happens to have been written by a Jew about a dead messianic claimant who was obviously--due to his death--not a messiah in the eyes of the Jew. This is so nonsensical a notion for a christian to hold. Whoosh.
Because if he was CALLED Christ by the Christians then it would be expected that he say so. It doesn't in any way imply that he personally called Jesus "Christ". Whoosh....
You are having grave difficulties understanding reality here. Despite the fact that christ is used in the LXX over 40 times, not one of those instances is referenced by Josephus. There is a strong case for his avoiding the use of the term completely. None of the messianic claimants get the term. The story he relates to Vespasian doesn't reference the term. Josephus can be seen deliberately not using the term, so you come along and think he is going to go against what he has already demonstrated because he is talking of Jesus. That's known as confirmation bias. You apparently won't deal with what's there because you prefer your confirming conclusion.

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You seem to not understand what the meaning of 'corroboration' is.
Backatcha.

A quickly grabbed definition:

corroborate: to confirm or support (facts, opinions, etc), esp by providing fresh evidence
'support' doesn't mean proof.
But why are you talking about proof. All I said is that you have no corroboration in what you said.

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Read this old blog entry.
Too uninterested at the moment given the time and energy, because I want to do a fairly thorough review, including reading what Doherty says about it.
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Old 07-30-2013, 09:37 AM   #76
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Galatians 1.19 confirms that the Pauline Corpus is a product of fiction or mythology.

It is claimed that a Pauline writer met James an apostle, the Lord's brother.

Based on the "details" of the Lord Jesus--he was a Myth born of a Ghost and a woman and corroborated by writers of the Jesus cult in and out the Canon.

1. Ignatius in his Epistle corroborates that Jesus was indeed the product of a Ghost. See Ignatius Epistles

2. Justin Martyr corroborates that Jesus was born WITHOUT sexual union. See First Apology

3. Irenaeus corroborates that Jesus was born of a Ghost. See Against Heresies

4. Tertullian corroborates that Jesus was born of a Ghost. See "On the Flesh of Christ

5. Origen corroborates that Jesus was born of a Ghost. See Against Celsus

The Pauline Corpus is a source of fiction, forgeries, false attribution and mythology.

The Lord Jesus never did exist as described in the Canon.

The Lord Jesus could NOT have any actual human brothers.
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Old 07-30-2013, 10:57 AM   #77
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Because if he was CALLED Christ by the Christians then it would be expected that he say so. It doesn't in any way imply that he personally called Jesus "Christ". Whoosh....
You are having grave difficulties understanding reality here. Despite the fact that christ is used in the LXX over 40 times, not one of those instances is referenced by Josephus. There is a strong case for his avoiding the use of the term completely.
What reason would he have to use or not use the term? Was it taboo to use it?


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None of the messianic claimants get the term.
Why should they if they were never called Christ, and certainly not years after their deaths?


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Josephus can be seen deliberately not using the term so you come along and think he is going to go against what he has already demonstrated because he is talking of Jesus.
Why not if the there was no conflict? There has to be a reason for him not to use the term that equally applies to all situations. What is it? I see zero harm to Josephus for using the term if all he is doing is relaying known practices of Christians (ie they called Jesus "Christ"), without agreeing with it. Can you show that he would not have used the term like this simply because he doesn't use it in different contexts? What other person had a cult that referred to their dead leader as 'Christ'?


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That's known as confirmation bias. You apparently won't deal with what's there because you prefer your confirming conclusion.
Nonsense. There isn't anything there. Silence in other places is silence. All you have is an argument from silence.
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Old 07-30-2013, 11:01 AM   #78
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aa, I had asked you:

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So, why are you dismissing Gal 1:19 when you have corroboration by gospels, Josephus, Jerome, and Hegessipus?
But you have reverted back to your default position when when faced with corroboration (read spin: support) for a passage: Ignore it as long as you can fall back on the tried and true "mythology" argument. A mythical person can't have a brother. How lame, yet predictable. But not very delightful at all, aa.
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Old 07-30-2013, 11:44 AM   #79
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aa, I had asked you:

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So, why are you dismissing Gal 1:19 when you have corroboration by gospels, Josephus, Jerome, and Hegessipus?
But you have reverted back to your default position when when faced with corroboration (read spin: support) for a passage: Ignore it as long as you can fall back on the tried and true "mythology" argument. A mythical person can't have a brother. How lame, yet predictable. But not very delightful at all, aa.
You make unsubstantiated claims and typically refuse to identify any passage in the Gospels, Josephus, Jerome and Hegessipus that show that there was an APOSTLE who was called the Lord's brother.

1. There are at least FOUR list of Apostles in Gospel and Acts-- NONE is the Lord's brother.

2. The Parents of Jesus is found in the Gospels and it was a Ghost and a Virgin.

3. In Josephus, there is NO Apostle, NO Lord Jesus and NO character called Apostle James brother of the LORD. In any event, the Father of Jesus in the NT was a Ghost.

4. In Jerome, James the Just, the Lord's brother, was the Son of the sister of Mary and the Father of Jesus was a Ghost

5. There is no evidence that Hegessipus did not claim the Father of Jesus was a Holy Ghost and a Virgin.

We have before us the simplest matter.

The Pauline Corpus is a source of fiction, forgery, false attribution, mythology and multiple unknown authors composed no earlier than c 180 CE.
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Old 07-30-2013, 12:03 PM   #80
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Because if he was CALLED Christ by the Christians then it would be expected that he say so. It doesn't in any way imply that he personally called Jesus "Christ". Whoosh....
You are having grave difficulties understanding reality here. Despite the fact that christ is used in the LXX over 40 times, not one of those instances is referenced by Josephus. There is a strong case for his avoiding the use of the term completely.
What reason would he have to use or not use the term? Was it taboo to use it?

Quote:
None of the messianic claimants get the term.
Why should they if they were never called Christ, and certainly not years after their deaths?
What do you call a Jewish leader who draws people out into the wilderness with apparently the political aim of driving out foreign occupation? Strangely, this is closer to the Jewish notion of a messiah than a guy whose major claim to fame is to die from crucixion.

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Originally Posted by TedM
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Josephus can be seen deliberately not using the term so you come along and think he is going to go against what he has already demonstrated because he is talking of Jesus.
Why not if the there was no conflict?
As I said, it would be going against what he has demonstrated.

Quote:
There has to be a reason for him not to use the term that equally applies to all situations. What is it? I see zero harm to Josephus for using the term if all he is doing is relaying known practices of Christians (ie they called Jesus "Christ"), without agreeing with it. Can you show that he would not have used the term like this simply because he doesn't use it in different contexts? What other person had a cult that referred to their dead leader as 'Christ'?


Quote:
That's known as confirmation bias. You apparently won't deal with what's there because you prefer your confirming conclusion.
Nonsense. There isn't anything there. Silence in other places is silence. All you have is an argument from silence.
You want to believe that the Jew, who is writing an apologetic history for the Jews and who knows the messianic prophecies for he applied them to Vespasian, would use the term for a figure who blatantly was not the messiah in Josephus's Jewish notion. Remember that the TF declares upfront "he was the messiah", a fact that christian scholars bend over backward to deny. You see nothing wrong with Josephus calling Jesus the messiah, confirming your desires. It is usually accompanied with the shamefaced manipulation of the TF being basically veracious just not that bit. We get the clinging onto the James passage despite the flaws in the TF displaying the fact that christian scribes have manipulated Josephus. This is real Alfred E. Newman stuff. Confirmation bias ignores all but the happy outcome.
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