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03-03-2003, 09:57 AM | #21 | |
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Christian doctrine posits 100% humanity. I further accept a kenotic view whereby Jesus relinquished omnipotence, omniscience etc. When someone dies for someone else its considered remarkable. Just as a brave soldier who jumps on a grenade to save his friends. In that light if for no other reason, it would be remarkable. Obviously you will say but Jesus knew he would be alive again so its not that special. Even if he did know, he still not not have to choose to experience the pain he did. Some atheists have a wierd way of trying to downplay aspects of the Christian faith that they shouldn't. Just an observation. This whole argument itself is a red herring. The fundies overstate things obviously. Jesus became infinite sin bwcause he literally took on all sin (sin is of course a free will action and not a thing that can be taken on) and that's why God had appeared to have forsaken him. Sure, if you want to know, this is not a tenable notion. But the Cross itself is a very special and remarkable event. Vinnie |
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03-03-2003, 10:00 AM | #22 | |
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03-03-2003, 10:20 AM | #23 | |
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What if the temple was destoryed and the high priest was killed or war was happening and people were detained and there could ne no sacririce that year? Does that mean there would be no forgiveness even if their were repentnent sinners? Leviticus 5:11-13 shows that there are exceptions to the blood rule: 11"If any of the people cannot afford to bring young turtledoves or pigeons, they must bring two quarts of choice flour for their sin offering. Since it is a sin offering, they must not mix it with olive oil or put any incense on it. 12They must take the flour to the priest, who will scoop out a handful as a token portion. He will burn this flour on the altar just like any other offering given to the LORD by fire. This will be their sin offering. 13In this way, the priest will make atonement for those who are guilty, and they will be forgiven. The rest of the flour will belong to the priest, just as with the grain offering." [/quote] Pbviously bloodshed is not a strict requirement in the sense most Christians think it is, is it? So God made a covenant with Israel. In this context forgiveness and she shedding of blood went hand in hand (because sin offering was a part off their very foundation and identity). Its like repentence and forgiveness now. But how does that turn into the universal proclimation that God is incapable of forgiving all or any people without bloodshed? Further, how does that turn into "Jesus forgave in light of this practice?" Vinnie |
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03-03-2003, 11:28 AM | #24 |
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Vinnie
In your view, is it morally acceptable that someone else should be punished for a crime you committed? |
03-03-2003, 11:47 AM | #25 | |
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I don't hold to a "substituionay" or "penal substition" atonement model. I probably find those types of models more objectionable than do most atheists here and I can do a good job pointing out their flaws. My site will soon have articles on this stuff in the soteriology section (salvation section) Vinnie |
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03-03-2003, 01:08 PM | #26 | |
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03-03-2003, 01:19 PM | #27 | |
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As a matter of interest, in what circumstances can you imagine that it would be morally acceptable for someone else to be punished for a crime you committed? |
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03-03-2003, 01:53 PM | #28 | ||
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To which Lewis's reply is a simple non-sequitur. Hey, I know: let's talk about something else! Now, your own view may well be different, but that hardly rehabilitates Lewis' view, nor what seems to be the standard Christology. You say: Quote:
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03-03-2003, 03:10 PM | #29 | |||||
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The reason for this, is because until Jesus died, there was no means of justification for the Gentiles. But there was for Jews, and that is why Jesus could declare sins forgiven in respect of the Jews. |
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03-03-2003, 03:38 PM | #30 | |
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Is anybody buying these apologetics? |
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