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05-02-2003, 10:28 AM | #111 | |
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That's what the sociobiologists think. Who cares what the rapists think? They could think they are carrying out the gods' orders for all we care; they will be and should be punished nonetheless. |
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05-02-2003, 10:43 AM | #112 | |
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this whole rape thing is making less sense the further this thread progresses... I think i'm going conclude that no one has a clue... at least there doesn't seem to be enough evidence to prove either way. |
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05-02-2003, 11:12 AM | #113 |
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Or, the evidence would seem to indicate that a wide variety of factors are at work, and that evolutionary forces may play a muted role in rape.
In reported rape, at any rate. Which brings me to another thought: How useful is it to poll rapists in prison? Given the extremely low rape report rate, and then on top of that a low conviction rate, it makes me wonder if and how the data might be skewed. I'm not criticizing its inclusion in the discussion -- after all, you've got to start somewhere -- but, I dunno, food for thought. |
05-02-2003, 11:16 AM | #114 | |
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Measures to prevent and deal with a crime motivated by sexual drives and poor impulse control, such as pedophilia, are much different from those employed for a crime motivated by a desire to dominate a victim. Rick |
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05-02-2003, 11:26 AM | #115 |
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This is going to be my last post on this thread. The discussion is going absolutely nowhere, and with the exception of Rick, no one on the other side has bothered to cite any evidence (and even then, those studies do much less than he thinks they do, as I pointed out above). I'll restrict myself to some general observations, and responses to some of the less hystertical replies coming out of Koyaanisqatsi and pz's corner.
-Far from being anamolious, marital-rape may be just another subset of sperm competition (Thornhill & Palmer, 2000). We know, for example, that sperm count is closely related to the time pair-bonded mates have physically spent apart, but only weakly releated to the length of time since last copulation. Its hypothesized that this is related to male "fears" about siring other men's kin. Similarly, Bachman & Salzman (1995) report that women seperated from their mates suffer much higher rates of victiminzation from their male counterparts. There are also strong relationships between fears of female infidelity on the males part and rape, battery and rape, and so forth. -That 13% of the population (11-29 year old females) experience more than 60% of rapes is no mere trifle; this is powerful evidence that demands an explaination. Pz's suggestion that "young women get raped because most rapists are young men, and that's who they associate with" seems odd, given that nearly half of all rapists are middle-aged (above 30; Greenfield, 1997. Explaining away the fact that the vast majority are commited against women as a result of the stigma associated with homosexuality (!) without a hint of evidence is even more improbable. To me it would seem that there is *at least* as strong a stigma attached to *violating a woman*! - Nor do i see male on male rape as any more of a theoretical problem than the sexual explaination of masturbation and bestiality. Certainly, sexual desires often manifest themselves in unreproductive ways. It would be interesting to see if, for example, the biological correlates of homosexuality were present in men who rape other men. It may suggest that rape against people of boths sexes is essentially the same phenomena, only manifested differently due to differences in the offenders biology. Also, scientists might look at the age distribution of male rape trauma. I suspect its strength would be even across the spectrum. Researchers have already noted that this trauma, however distributed among victims according to age, seems to depend almost entirely on a loss of social status, real or imagined (Ellis, 2002; Rentoul & Appleboom, 1997). -The predictions for the rape-as-power theory i presented are not "straw men". Although you may disagree about their applicability, these claims are explicitly made by its defenders. See Groth (1979), Brownmiller (1975), Harding (1985), and so forth. -That cross-species compairisons offer conclusive proof of the ultimately sexual nature of rape isnt true; that it makes a good prima facie case, i think, is. Given the prevalence of rape in the animal kingdom, and given the probably that these animals are not driven by sadistic desires to dominate, that similar sexual causes exist in humans isnt too far of a stretch. -The numbers on excessive violence didnt add up because there is *overlap*; rapists who are slapping their victims are also holding them down, and so forth. That only 4% of victims sustain serious injury (Pinker, 2002), though, is not in question and demands an explaination. And obviously, pz, "excessive" is not a normative judgment. That you would even *suggest* that when I *defined* the word is not only dishonest, but offensive. - Koyaanisqatsi asks: "If rape is sociobiological and it has been a "norm" for centuries, then why hasn't there been a corresponding acceptance of it from the females..." Why, Koyaanisqatsi? Because *rape decreases female reproductive fitness*! -Why would there be selection pressures against seriously harming or killing the woman you have just raped, if rape increase male reproductive fitness? Sheesh, I dont know Koyaanisqatsi, but it is pretty hard for dead women to have babies, isnt it? -Koyaanisqatsi also said: "You asserted that female orgasm may serve a procreative purpose, not whether or not the clitoris, necessarily, serves a procreative purpose. Women are capable of having an orgasm with or without direct (or even indirect) stimulation of the clitoris" Why is this is being debating? 1) female orgasm serves a reproductive purpose 2) 90% of women need some sort of clitoral stimulation to reach orgasm. Therefore, what can we safely conclude about the clitoris? Thanks, and good night. -GFA |
05-02-2003, 06:10 PM | #116 | |||||||||||||||||||||||
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How about addressing the arguments presented and leave off the ad hominen, yes? Quote:
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Sorry, was my pointing out this glaring ommission part of my "hysterics?" Quote:
If "nearly half" are above 30, then that means that over half are below 30, yes? Do you have any kind of specific breakdown as to how many of the "nearly half" that are over 30 raped 11-29 year olds? Any breakdown as to how many of the over half that are under 30 raped 11-29 year olds? Under 11 year olds? Over 29 year olds? Again, your evidence does not provide coherent analysis or cogent evidence to support your theory. Sorry. I guess the "bold" is what you would call my "hysterics," but there doesn't appear to be any other way to get through to you that your evidence is spurious at best and at worst proves that there is no causal link to any of this. Quote:
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Why are you so intent to cling to a theory that your own evidence does not support? Quote:
Acts that cannot be the result of a biological need to procreate! At least stay consistent. Quote:
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Perhaps if you'd actually apply some form of consistent, cogent critical analysis to what your own evidence demonstrates, there wouldn't be any need for "hysterics" as you see it. Quote:
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Your theory is about procreation being the primary (indeed, only, it seems) reason why "rape" exists in our culture. Your evidence, however, proves this is not the case. If between 35% and 40% ("nearly half" one might even say) of the female victims are not of reproductive age, then your theory does not attain. Quote:
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No, I guess not. You're far more intent on posting tenuous evidence that does not correlate with your theory; indeed it argues conclusively against it. I'm glad this was your last post. I couldn't handle another slipshod, piecemeal polemic that is almost completely devoid of any critical analysis being applied to one's own evidence. But I guess that's just more of my "hysterics," for you. I guess it was just too much to ask of you to present a cogent rebuttal that addresses all of one's arguments, not just a few of the more ancillary ones. Start with this, once you come lurking back: 40% of female victims--according to your own sources--were not of reproductive age. What then does that say regarding your theory that rape is the result of a biological need to procreate? Once you're done with that, then perhaps you'd kindly address all of the other cogent arguments I and others presented, yes? Instead of trying to illegitimatley dismiss them all to my "hysterics." |
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05-02-2003, 09:56 PM | #117 | |
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Except that it's not. Scientific theories are supposed to be predictive, testable, and perhaps most important of all, potentially falsifiable; the adaptive rape hypothesis fails these criteria. If some aspect of rape corresponds to the adaptation story (ie reproductive age women are the most frequent vicitms of rape), the theory is confirmed. If not (ie. lots of non-reproductive-age women are raped, some men are raped, and many reproductive-age women are raped in manners not likely to result in conception), it’s because the environment and culture have played a role, or it's not "any more of a theoretical problem" than something else." There is no set of observations or experments that could disprove the adaptive rape hypothesis. In the end, a belief that offers explanations with no potential falsifiability isn't really explanatory at all. A theory that only works when it works isn't particulary useful or predictive, and it isn't good science. Rick |
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05-02-2003, 10:57 PM | #118 |
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Thank you Dr. Rick.
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05-03-2003, 08:46 AM | #119 | |
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::The following I understand to be true:: Every aspect of an organism's phenotype is the joint product of its genes and its environment.Ergo, it's meaningless to ask whether a characteristic "is a result of genetics or environment" because both HAVE to be partially responsible. ::So our genotypic characteristics (is that a valid phrase at all?) can be designated as one of the below:: a) adaptations which are present because they were selected for b) by-products which are present because they are causally coupled to traits that were selected for c) non-functional, non-adaptive random traits that are none-the-less still a result of evolution As I see it there is definitely a genetic component in rape because there is a genetic component in EVERYTHING, it's just not necessarily an adaptive or heritable trait. So by denying that rape is adaptive... what are we saying rape is? How did it manifest in our species behavior? i.e. What are the other hypotheses? - environment joint with person's genes (which maybe predisposed the person to violence) are what makes a person a rapist? |
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05-03-2003, 03:02 PM | #120 | |
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If psychology (or self-awareness) is to be found in the genes, I'm all for seeing corroborative evidence. Theories of consciousness generally consider it to be an emergent quality and not necessarily genetic; i.e., it's a question of software, not hardware. |
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