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07-09-2003, 06:20 PM | #31 | |||||||||
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No, we can have knowledge about them both up to a certain extent. We just can't certain about both of them simultaneously. That's why it's called the uncertaintly principle and not the randomness principle. Quote:
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I do apologize if my other comment came across as an attack. That truly wasn't my intent; it was merely an observation based on your previous posts. Quote:
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If it was truly utterly random, then there is an equal chance for the electron of a hydrogen atom to be in the crab nebula as within an angstrom of the nucleus. Obviously, this is absurd. Quote:
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It's not purely indeterministic...it's just uncertain. Quote:
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07-09-2003, 06:40 PM | #32 | ||||||||||
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The things I'm dealing with here aren't even that advanced, but make up the general level of quantum theory. Quote:
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Something is either completely random or completely deterministic, there is no middle ground. Quote:
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Name calling aside, I thought my posts in the x-ian thread had little to do with christian mythology and much to do with subjective faith and immaterial worldviews. |
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07-09-2003, 07:28 PM | #33 | ||||||
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Originally posted by Normal
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So again I ask, unparsimonious relative to which system? Where is your earth shatteringly revolutionary alternative to science? |
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07-09-2003, 07:35 PM | #34 | ||||
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But let’s waive that for the moment and assume for the sake of argument that the Copenhagen interpretation is correct. Then if “cause” and “effect” are defined in the usual way, so “A causes B” entails at least “if A, necessarily B”, it’s not much of a stretch to say that there is no such thing as cause and effect in this world. (Gravitational and relativistic effects are an exception. So far as we know at this point GR is completely deterministic.) So up to this point you’re on pretty solid ground. Here’s where you really go off the rails: Quote:
More rigorously, “evidence” is defined by Bayes’ Theorem. To state this as simply as possible, if an observation O is more likely given the truth of hypothesis H than it is given the falsehood of H, then O is evidence for H. No “cause/effect” relationships are required. Quote:
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If you like, you can say that the laws of probability are the “reason” for order at the macroscopic level in spite of the high degree of randomness (not chaos) at the quantum level. You seem to be under the impression that the observed macroscopic order is some kind of deep mystery to physicists; that there’s some kind of disconnect between the “laws” observed at the macroscopic level and the randomness at the quantum level. Nothing could be further from the truth. The macroscopic level is exactly as orderly as (and in just the way) the quantum equations predict. There’s no disconnect; it’s all a seamless web so far as physics is concerned. |
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07-10-2003, 06:47 AM | #35 | ||||||
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07-10-2003, 06:51 AM | #36 | ||||||||
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07-10-2003, 07:26 AM | #37 |
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MWI doesn't call for an infinite number of worlds, although certainly it requires so many of them that as far as we are concerned they might as well be infinite, butit is not a case of using one infinity to cancel out another.
The difference between differing interpretations of quantum mechanics and thr god theory is that there are proposals of ways to falsify these theories whereas the god theory seems to be exempt from falsification. |
07-10-2003, 07:51 AM | #38 | |
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You mention Buddhism as an example, but then you turn around and say "that is what makes science superior to religion." Shouldn't that read "that is what makes science superior to Buddhism?" All religions are not the same. It appears as though you are equivocating here since Buddhism and religion are not synonomous. |
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07-10-2003, 09:09 AM | #39 | ||||||
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On the first count, causation is used simply because in many cases the situation is such that a small sacrifice in accuracy can substantially expedite the scientific process. We don't use relativity or quantum mechanics to describe billard balls, but that doesn't mean that we have added to our ontology in doing so. On the second, talk of causation is once again, not an addition to ontology. Any quantum mechanical talk of causation can be tacitly assumed to be heavily qualified unless the person talking about it doesn't know about Quantum Mechanics. Your presupposition, bizzare as it is, is that scientists speaking of causation in the context Quantum Mechanics are actually talking about classical deterministic causation within the context of QM. This is simply absurd, since anyone smart enough to learn QM will be smart enough to avoid that simplistic contradiction. Quote:
Having pointed out the well known fact that the term causation is not so bound to deterministic mechanics as you imagine, I would like to point out that even if such a jury-rigged system would be used literally, your assertion that it would consequently lack parsimony rings hollow. Unparsimonious relative to what? It's still the best theory. |
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07-10-2003, 12:06 PM | #40 | |||||||||
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A system is either determinstic or indeterministic. A deterministic system is characterized by order. An indeterministic system is characterized by an element of randomness. The quantum level events that underlie existence are an indeterministic system. Quote:
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Let's continue with this "transfer of energy potentials" as a definition of cause. This is to imply that electrons composed of matter in state X transfer to state Y and thus transfer their energy to form the effect of the transfer of X to Y. So is the transfer itself the cause or effect? You might have me believe that the transfer is the cause of the event, but in reality, if you look at the semantics, the transfer is the event itself, while the cause of the transfer is utterly absent from the equation. To put it another way, you are only looking at effects. To put it another way still, causes are an illusion. Now back to my point: what is the parsimonious reason for causes to exist at the macroscopic scale while retaining a causeless base? The common answer so far is "probability". Probability is not a reason for causes to exist, probability is a system. To use probability as a reason for a pseudo-deterministic system to arise from an indeterministic system is a fallacy, specifically, the gamblers fallacy. Quote:
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