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12-31-2002, 01:57 PM | #41 | |
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Even Robin Lane Fox -- no apologist -- accepts that conclusion and dismisses attempts to argue otherwise. RLF, The Unauthorized Version. |
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12-31-2002, 02:18 PM | #42 | |
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Did you miss that quote I typed into the thread that preceded this one?
Thiessen and Merz, page 32: Quote:
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12-31-2002, 02:32 PM | #43 | |
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I pointed out that this was an overstatement. And a significant one at that. Fitzymer, Fox, Witherington, Bruce, Hendel, and other respected historians and/or New Testament scholars have concluded that Acts was written by a companion of Paul. |
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12-31-2002, 02:41 PM | #44 |
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My point? I guess that "critical consensus" doesn't include a few of your favorites, but that's not my problem. There are always going to be outliers from some consensus, especially in a soft area like Biblical studies, where theories outnumber facts.
But at least you can see that the case against Luke's authorship of Acts does not depend on the "we" passages. |
12-31-2002, 02:44 PM | #45 | ||
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Perhaps it is your "favorite" that is grossly overstating her case? Quote:
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01-09-2003, 12:37 PM | #46 | |
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01-09-2003, 02:32 PM | #47 |
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Layman - I really don't want to get back to this topic until I have gotten a copy of the essay in question.
But I cannot take seriously the idea that the use of the first person plural is any sort of indication of accuracy, whether or not it can be shown to be a literary convention. Fictional works can be written in the first person, and were written in the first person in classical times. If this is the strongest part of the case for authenticity, there is not very much of a case. Also, Vork let me know that he is going to be swamped with work for the next few months, and we won't be hearing from him for a while. |
01-09-2003, 02:48 PM | #48 | |
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But it isn't just that the 1st person plural is USED, it is that there is a SWITCH (from 3rd person to 1st person plural) at certain points in the narrative. Luke's Greek prose is considered good so this switch is all but inexplicable if there's no convention of using it for maritime descriptions etc. [add via edit] One possible explanation: the "we" passages reflect when the Luke author was an eyewitness (ie when he was a traveling companion of Paul [end edit]. Plus the opening lines of Luke's Gospel (the Gospel and Acts being companion pieces) indicate that the author was TRYING to be accurate (which would not be necessary in a work of fiction). Cheers! |
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01-09-2003, 02:50 PM | #49 | ||
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01-09-2003, 03:08 PM | #50 | |
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And I think that most scenes in Acts are fictional, but I could be persuaded that parts of it reflect history. Robert Eisenman and Sid Green seem to think that there is some historical use to be made of Acts, although probably not one that you would agree with. And, Leonarde, so what if there is a switch between two different narrative voices? The easiest explanation is that Acts was cobbled together from two or more different documents. Use of the first person plural still does not indicate that one of those documents was based on personal observation. This is hardly the biggest mystery in the Bible. |
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