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05-13-2002, 06:41 AM | #11 |
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Actually in order to rebut my argument he'd have to show that the clear language of the Treaty of Tripoli, ratified by the Senate without a single dissenting vote and signed into effect by the President of the U.S. in the 1790s, decades before the Supreme Court decision on which he hangs his own flimsy arguments, that "the United States is in no way a Christian nation" supports his point that the U.S. was not a "secular nation" or that the Constitution was not interpreted as a "secular document" until fifty years ago. I won't be holding my breath; frankly I grow quickly tired of these kinds of dialogues with the deaf.
And whether or not any level of government promoted religion at any time in the past, I'd argue, is beside the point of whether the U.S. was a secular nation or not. That the Supremes took their time finding such conduct unconstitutional, correctly IMHO, does not mean that it was Consitutional before the date of that decision but not after. [ May 13, 2002: Message edited by: IvanK ]</p> |
05-14-2002, 06:58 AM | #12 | |||||
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I answer no, the word secularism wasn’t coined until 1851 so didn’t apply to the U.S. founded in 1776. Secularism imposes upon the “piety of good men” the “utility of piety”, and in so doing deprives people of intrinsic dignity. Secularism excludes from the public debate, law and public policy all sectarian values, wisdom, beauty and doctrines. I won’t go through the black hole of failure, cruelty and tragedies perpetrated by modern secular (godless) nations in the 20th Century, but its obvious mankind hasn’t reached Comte’s Third Age of Knowledge, not by a long shot. Secular doctrines are insufficient hence unsuitable because they disembowel people of higher purposes to denigrate by “the means justifies the ends” i.e. people are systematically subjugated for utility. [quote] Quote:
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05-14-2002, 07:32 AM | #13 | |
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What? How were the civil rights movements a threat to U.S. sovereignty? |
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05-14-2002, 09:05 AM | #14 | ||
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Did the U.S. Senate ratify without a dissenting vote and did the President sign the Treaty of Tripoli in the 1790's or did they not? Did that treaty explicitly state that the U.S. was in no way to be considered a Christian nation or did it not? Does that destroy your argument that the U.S. was not a "secular nation" before the mid-1800s or does it not, and why? And why should we expect you to answer any of this honestly when you can't even be honest about what it is you're arguing or that it has anything to do with the religious beliefs you certainly hold? [ May 14, 2002: Message edited by: IvanK ]</p> |
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05-14-2002, 09:22 AM | #15 | |||||
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[ May 14, 2002: Message edited by: dk ]</p> |
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05-14-2002, 09:45 AM | #16 | |
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05-14-2002, 09:50 AM | #17 | |
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05-14-2002, 09:53 AM | #18 | ||
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1. The U.S. was a Christian nation. 2. In the 1790s the unanimous Senate and President of the U.S. accepted and endorsed the clear statement contained in the Treaty of Tripoli that the U.S. was in no way to be considered a Christian nation. Quote:
But since you're apparently so confused already that you aren't able to tell the difference between statements 1 and 2 above what else should I have expected? Show me you're coherent, pay at least some attention to the visible world and are able to form arguments that don't rely exclusively on long quotes taken out of context from longer court decisions or don't expect to hear from me again. BTW by "straw man" I'm assuming you mean "gee that's a good one, better change the subject fast" like so many of your kind. |
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05-14-2002, 01:04 PM | #19 | |
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Andy |
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05-15-2002, 06:19 AM | #20 | ||
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[ May 15, 2002: Message edited by: dk ]</p> |
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