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Old 12-07-2002, 03:46 AM   #71
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Re: Kosh, more reading difficulties

Quote:
So when Luke wrote:


quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Luke 1, 3
I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, it seemed good also to me to write an orderly account for you

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

He wasn't really trying to give an exact account (by omitting that John, a major figure in the story) also ran to the tomb. Was he:

- lying?
- incompetent in his research?
No, he wasn't trying to give an "exact" account. Neither was he trying to give an exhaustive, or even a comprehensive, account. He was trying to give an "orderly" account. You quoted it yourself!

Again, if we stick with what is ACTUALLY WRITTEN, and don't read in words that aren't there, we have no problem.
Quote:
Mark, Mathew, and Luke have the women at the tomb alone, speaking to a young man (or men, or angels), and being told to go tell the disciples.

However, John has Mary see the stone rolled away, she runs and gets the disciples, they then leave the tomb,and THEN she engages the angels.

How do you reconcile this? The two are quite contradictory.
It's explained in my narrative. Go back and read it again. If you must then admit that it's beyond your comprehension, I'll type it out again for you.
Quote:
Mark 16:7 But go tell his disciples and Peter.

There is simply no wiggle room here, John. The angel is talking to Mary,in the tomb, and telling her to go tell Peter. According to you (and John) Peter has already been to the tomb and left.

Could you explain this?
Yes, and very easily. You purposely cut off the sentence to try to make a point! The entire sentence is:

7But go, tell his disciples and Peter that he is going before you to Galilee.

Peter had seen an empty tomb. The angel gave a reminder to go to Galilee. When people see an empty tomb, they do not automatically think, 'Gee, I should go to Galilee.'
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Old 12-07-2002, 04:00 AM   #72
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Re: Family Man

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Your analogies are terrible and inaccurate...
No, your argument is silly and excessively pedantic, and has been dealt with. At this point I'll trust that most Internet Infidels aren't so anal in their use of language.

Hehe.
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Old 12-07-2002, 04:05 AM   #73
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Quote:
The text as written identifies only one man in Mark's account.
ROFL! No, the text as written identifies one man. You just inserted the "only" again - and yet you claim that MY position is dependent on "only." This is pathetic. Here's some advice - leave it to those more competent than you.
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Old 12-07-2002, 04:40 AM   #74
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Re: David Bowden
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But Matthew's account is completely straightforward in saying that the guards and the women are present at the same time that the angel (consistently referred to by Matthew in the singular, never in plural) descends, opens the tomb, and sits on the stone.
I missed that. Please point out the words that make this "completely straightforward."
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Clearly Matthew is telling the story with the understanding that the women were present at the time of the angel's sudden arrival, and that they witnessed the tomb's opening and the cowering of the guards.
That's certainly the impression you get when reading Matthew. However, it's an impression. There's nothing definite actually written - like "at the same time," or "immediately," or the like. So, this impression is open to interpretation.

Similarly, Barker's first paragraph gives the impression that he is only interested in Easter day itself. However, he didn't actually say "only," or "the twenty-four-hour period," so this impression is open to interpretation. A few paragraphs later, we see that the intital impression is incorrect. No one had a problem with this - it's normal speech and interpretation.
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So the harmonization you've given doesn't mesh with Matthew's account; it specifically omits the angel's magnificent demonstration during the women's visit.
Again, if the account actually said "during the women's visit," you'd have a point. But it doesn't say that. That is an impression you got, an impression which is open to interpretation.
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Unfortunately, here John contradicts Matthew, who tells us three things:
1.) that an angel explained Jesus' whereabouts to Mary Magdalene (and the other Mary) before she encountered Jesus
Let's see the quote. Does it say this, or is it again your impression?
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2.) that Mary Magdalene left that angel in a state of awe and joy as a result of his information, and
Really? As I read Matthew, it refers to "women" in these verses, not "Mary Magdalene."
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Unless we posit that Mary Magdalene was horribly forgetful (which means she wouldn't have been a good interviewee for any gospel-writer), we have to conclude that the gospels are in contradiction as to Mary Magdalene's state of mind after her visit to the tomb, and before her encounter with Jesus. Your harmonization omits several details specifically mentioned in the NT Easter accounts.
Let me go back and check my harmonization...looks like I forgot to put in Mary stepping away. Here's a revision. The additions are in bold:

"Mary was weeping. An angel said, "Woman, why are you weeping?" She said to them, "They have taken away my Lord, and I do not know where they have laid him." The angel asked, "Why do you seek the living among the dead?" Mary left the tomb. The angel then continued, "Do not be afraid, for I know that you seek Jesus who was crucified. Remember how he told you, while he was still in Galilee, that the Son of Man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men and be crucified and on the third day rise. He is not here, but has risen. See the place where they laid him. Then go quickly and tell his disciples that he has risen from the dead, and behold, he is going before you to Galilee; there you will see him." The women then went out from the tomb, joyful.

Meanwhile Jesus, in the appearance of a gardener, spoke to Mary Magdalene, asking "Woman, why are you weeping? Whom are you seeking?" Mary replied, "Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have laid him, and I will take him away." Jesus revealed himself to her. The other women, having left the tomb, came up and saw Jesus also. He told them to go tell the disciples what they had seen, and to tell them that he was ascending to the Father, but he would see them in Galilee."
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He doesn't appear to them and then sit; he is already there, already seated, when they enter the tomb. Mark also gives no sign of a previous visit to the tomb by the women, or a look-see by any male disciples.
Points like this prove that no one of the gospels (or even all four together, for that matter) gives an exhaustive account of the day. I agree. Your point?
Quote:
But Mark's testimony (the part that is accepted as authentic) is clear: the women "said nothing to anyone, for they were afraid." (Mk 16:8)
Let's look at the preceding verse:

"7But go, tell his disciples and Peter that he is going before you to Galilee. There you will see him, just as he told you." 8And they went out and fled from the tomb, for trembling and astonishment had seized them, and they said nothing to anyone, for they were afraid."

Since they had just been told to tell the disciples, it's reasonable to conclude that they did not tell anyone except the disciples. This is the best you have, though, as my argument is subjective (i.e., you're not adding or substituting words on this one).

That's all I've got time for right now. That was a long post, feel free to bring up points I passed over if you feel they're important.
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Old 12-07-2002, 05:50 AM   #75
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Quote:
Originally posted by JohnV:
<strong>No, he wasn't trying to give an "exact" account. Neither was he trying to give an
exhaustive, or even a comprehensive, account. He was trying to give an "orderly"
account. You quoted it yourself!
</strong>
Really?

Quote:
New American Standard
Luke 1:4
so that you may know the exact truth about the things you have been taught.
I guess it depends on the interpretaton you decide you like best!

Also, John, is it possible for you to participate in this without resorting to personal insults of competency and reading problems? You're not winning any converts here...
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Old 12-07-2002, 06:02 AM   #76
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JohnV,

Quote:
It's not a trick, it's interpretation, and it's very common. Earlier in the thread, we used the same or similar methods to resolve the conflicts in Barker's own accounts of the challenge, and no one called it a trick!
You seem hung on this idea, as though we're being unfair to be so skeptical of interpretations of scripture but are willing to let Barker slide. But you yourself admitted that Barker's challenge was self-contradictory, or at best, unclear.

We let him slide because he doesn't claim divine inspiration. He also isn't purporting to record the most momentous event in human history.

Quote:
YOU: Where does it say they saw only one?
ANOTHER: When they say that they saw a young man.
YOU: Nope, no 'only' in there.
"Only" is necessary inference. Say you're walking down the street and see two young men running out of a dark alley. You go to the alley and see the body of a freshly murdered man. You call the police and tell them your story. How many young men do you report having seen leaving the scene, and how do you report it? (For the purposes of this illustration, I won't even posit that the young men in question were dressed all in white, let alone "in shining white raiment like lightning" or such silliness, which would make mentioning one--and still being perceived as truthful--even more ludicrous.)

Let's say you're into telling the truth. Do you report "two young men" leaving the scene? Or do you report--without prompting from your interrogators--"only two young men"?

If you report to the police--again, without being prompted otherwise--that there were "only two young men leaving the scene," what do you suppose their immediate reactions will be?

If I were in that situation, the first thing that would spring to mind is, "Why did you say only?" Why am I so suspicious? Because you just made a verbal slip. You just told me through necessary inference that you know more than you're telling.

Now, in the tomb story, we have the possibility of a crime having been committed. Would the narrator report all the facts or only the convenient facts?

Both the young men, moreover, were sitting together (where the body had lain), dressed all in white. There's no doubt that the narrator saw both. Don't you think the spectacle--the miracle of the angels' appearance in the tomb--as described by Luke would be worth a mention, if that's indeed what happened?

C'mon. We have a missing body here. And people are claiming HE ROSE FROM THE DEAD. Just like the witness to the perps leaving the scene of a murder, I don't trust the narrator who reports, in such a momentous story, only those facts that are convenient to his narrative when he obviously (according to your harmonization) saw far more, but carefully selected what to report and what not to report.

If Mark had said "only one man" was in the tomb, we'd have known that he was aware of a different account of the story and was intentionally contradicting it OR the narrator clearly had seen two and for some reason wanted to cover up this fact.

If the "only" is included, it arouses questions concerning the authenticity of at least one of the accounts; if the "only" is not included, it arouses questions as to what the narrator is hiding. Either way, you lose--because of Luke's account that says there was more than one man there.

Also, reporting how many people spoke at a convention or how many bowls of cereal you've eaten isn't quite in the same category as reporting how many people were found at the scene when apparently the most important missing body in history has just disappeared, don't you think? Common sense dictates that there are times it's fine to fudge or omit facts, then there are times we need all the facts to the best of the witnesses' recollections.

Quote:
At this point I'll trust that most Internet Infidels aren't so anal in their use of language.
d
if anything, more anal than Family Man

P.S. I'm surprised no one has mentioned it here, but I've encountered several Xns who acknowledge the disharmony of the accounts and actually use this as proof as to the authenticity of the eyewitness reports. The reasoning goes that eyewitnesses always see different things (true), and the stories would actually be less believable if they purported to come from different witnesses and they all happened to match (or harmonize easily). This explanation conveniently forgets the inspiration of the bible, though.
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Old 12-07-2002, 07:06 AM   #77
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Quote:
P.S. I'm surprised no one has mentioned it here, but I've encountered several Xns who acknowledge the disharmony of the accounts and actually use this as proof as to the authenticity of the eyewitness reports. The reasoning goes that eyewitnesses always see different things (true), and the stories would actually be less believable if they purported to come from different witnesses and they all happened to match (or harmonize easily). This explanation conveniently forgets the inspiration of the bible, though.
I agree Diania, The Bible is supposed to be an acurate historical account, unless it contradicts itself, then the writers "just wanted to show the basics of the story" Small details like how many angels were their, how many people were there, what time of day it was, and other details were "unimportant" to the story, and so no problem here!
Luke is supposed to be a great historian, but when he leaves out major events to a story, hey it's no problem! He was busy recording the word of God, so , if he left out a few details like who, where, when, or what, thats O.K., he told us WHY, and that should be good enough.

I like Barkers own reply to this.

Quote:
Another analogy sometimes used by apologists is comparing the resurrection contradictions to differing accounts given by witnesses of an auto accident. If one witness said the vehicle was green and the other said it was blue, that could be accounted for by different angles, lighting, perception, or definitions of words. The important thing, they claim, is that they do agree on the basic story--there was an accident, there was a resurrection.

I am not a fundamentalist inerrantist. I'm not demanding that the evangelists must have been expert, infallible witnesses. (None of them claims to have been at the tomb itself, anyway.) But what if one person said the auto accident happened in Chicago and the other said it happened in Milwaukee? At least one of these witnesses has serious problems with the truth.

Luke says the post-resurrection appearance happened in Jerusalem, but Matthew says it happened in Galilee, sixty to one hundred miles away! Could they all have traveled 150 miles that day, by foot, trudging up to Galilee for the first appearance, then back to Jerusalem for the evening meal? There is no mention of any horses, but twelve well-conditioned thoroughbreds racing at breakneck speed, as the crow flies, would need about five hours for the trip, without a rest. And during this madcap scenario, could Jesus have found time for a leisurely stroll to Emmaus, accepting, "toward evening," an invitation to dinner? Something is very wrong here.
Something very wrong indeed.
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Old 12-07-2002, 08:20 AM   #78
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Quote:
Depending on how I interpret it? Barker claims that the challenge is "straightforward" and "simple." If it's straightforward and simple, there are not two reasonable intepretations, only one. So, which is it?
hehe
There is only one "intrepratation". In fact, no interpratation is needed. Within the very same document, a few lines down, the challenge is laid out. You do not have to check other documents, written by other people, at other times to "interpret" what Barker says. You just have to read the text. All of it. I know this is different than reading the Bible .where you have to pull a few words from this book, a few words from that book, translate some words from on source, and other words from another source, until you get what you want. hehe


Quote:
Mark ends with the ascension. We know from John that there were at least 8 days between Easter and the ascension.
Also, an open question: how many people noticed the glaring error in Barker's question(s)?
hehe But the fact that Acts puts the ascension forty days later is not a problem?hehe

You still haven't point out this glaring error.hehe

Quote:
I agree. In fact, I doubt that anyone else even noticed, which was my point - when two or more passages speak of the same thing in different levels of detail, we tend to interpret the more detailed as the more accurate, and the less detailed as a summary. We don't yell "Contradiction!" Using this method of interpretation on the Gospel accounts of Easter, most of Barker's objections dry up.
hehe Execpt we are not dealing with one work, that includes the details within itself. We are dealing with six DIFFERENT accounts. hehe Different authors, different times. Now if John had said Two angels, and then later said The angel, we would know that there were two, and he was speaking about one of them at the time.hehe
But Matthew and Mark never MENTION more than one, so reading the text, we can ONLY conclude there was ONE. To say they neglected to mention the apperance of an angel, is to say that their whole account is suspect.hehe

[ December 07, 2002: Message edited by: Butters ]</p>
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Old 12-07-2002, 08:32 AM   #79
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Quote:
Originally posted by JohnV:
<strong>ROFL! No, the text as written identifies one man. You just inserted the "only" again - and yet you claim that MY position is dependent on "only." This is pathetic. Here's some advice - leave it to those more competent than you.</strong>
What is pathetic is your inability to understand the nuances of language.

Of course I added an only. I can do that because the context is different. Since it is already established that there was one man in the tomb in Mark's account the only in my sentence acts as emphasis.

However, to insert an only in Mark's account turns the account into a joke. That would suggest that they were not only expecting people to be there, but were surprised that there was only one. That, of course, is not the meaning of the text.

The women went to the tomb. There was a man. There was only one man. Notice I can't take out the second sentence of this paragraph without changing the meaning. Which is why your post above is completely off the mark.

And, yes, you're the one who insists that the text requires an only for us to conclude that there was only one man in the tomb. Unfortunately for you, only can't be used that way in the passage. It's impossible.

Again, I'd check the validity of your arguments before you post them. I think you're starting to look quite ridiculous with these obvious linguistic fallacies you keep posting.

[ December 07, 2002: Message edited by: Family Man ]</p>
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Old 12-07-2002, 08:38 AM   #80
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Quote:
Originally posted by JohnV:
<strong>Re: Family Man

No, your argument is silly and excessively pedantic, and has been dealt with. At this point I'll trust that most Internet Infidels aren't so anal in their use of language.

Hehe.</strong>

Except that you're the one insisting that [b]only[\b] must be inserted into the text, ignoring the fact that it changes the meaning. I'm the one who is pointing out that the plain reading of the text indicates only one man in the tomb. Your pedantism isn't going to change that.

And, no, you haven't dealt with it. All you have done is to post linguistic fantasies, despite the fact that what you require is impossible to insert into the text. Your arguments are worthless.

There was only one man in the tomb in Mark's account. Your arguments haven't changed that fact and the contradiction still stands.

[ December 07, 2002: Message edited by: Family Man ]</p>
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