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Old 09-01-2002, 11:26 AM   #31
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What in the world do you mean? By "void" do you mean "invalid," or something else?
well, you don't believe in god so why would any of the four propositions have any meaning to you? Please don't use your 'this isn't relevant' line again. It won't cut it with me.

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And this has what bearing on the argument at hand?
you haven't got an argument demrald- you tell me what is inconsistent about any of it> I am moral, I can stop immoral acts but I will not, and it isn't immoral to stop an act I deem as immoral. Well? So far, I haven't seen anything to shout about. You can't just pull us to bits all day. Illustrate, dammit!

I suggest you drop the whole thing and move on-I did rush in a little early on, and then decided to lower my tone, but now I really can't see what your getting at.

Alright, you're trying to illustrate inconsistency in a supposed groups line of thought. Then what?

Am I right> that you want to have a cheap swing at some theists? And don't give me that irrelevant to the discussion crap- what are your intentions demrald? Or can't you admit or explain the point or pointlessness of this thread?
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Old 09-01-2002, 11:46 AM   #32
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well, you don't believe in god so why would any of the four propositions have any meaning to you?
So, whether or not I believe in God determines if 'God' has meaning? Do I have this power over other words, as well?
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Please don't use your 'this isn't relevant' line again. It won't cut it with me.
I didn't create relevancy; it was already here when I arrived.
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you haven't got an argument demrald- you tell me what is inconsistent about any of it.
I didn't say your argument was inconsistent; I asked what it has to do with my argument.
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I suggest you drop the whole thing and move on
Your suggestion is noted, but shall go unheeded (for now).
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Alright, you're trying to illustrate inconsistency in a supposed groups line of thought. Then what?
Then their beliefs about reality can't be accurate.
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Am I right> that you want to have a cheap swing at some theists? And don't give me that irrelevant to the discussion crap- what are your intentions demrald?
My intentions are simple: to try to take over the world!
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Or can't you admit or explain the point or pointlessness of this thread?
Tell me how you really feel, sweep.
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Old 09-01-2002, 12:24 PM   #33
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I feel full, and a little bit ill after eating a reheated cherry pie & custard. The starter was nice though. I feel content- thanks for asking

I won't give you anymore fuel- please take the lead and continue. Tell me:

1. how the logic is inconsistent in the conservative christian view.

2 why it matters if their beliefs aren't accurate.

lets try and be honest then we can all learn something- I don't mind being shown that I am an ass, so long as people explain in a way that benefits the ignorant. Otherwise, I'll carry on bleating, in my ignorance, if that is the case.
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Old 09-01-2002, 12:32 PM   #34
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how the logic is inconsistent in the conservative christian view.
The answer to this question is the argument which appears in the OP.
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why it matters if their beliefs aren't accurate.
If you truly want this question to be addressed, start another thread dealing with it. This thread is only intended to deal with the argument presented in the OP.
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Old 09-01-2002, 04:51 PM   #35
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Originally posted by demrald:
<strong>I decided the philosophy forum would be the best place for this topic, but I'm sure I'll get moved if the mod(s) think otherwise.

Basically another formulation of the logical argument from evil, it goes something like this:

<ol type="1">[*]God is (perfectly) moral.[*]God is aware of and can prevent certain evils (eg., rapes and murders).[*]God refrains from preventing these certain evils.[*]It is not immoral to refrain from preventing these certain evils.[/list=a]

Rather than disproving God's existence, this argument attempts to demonstrate an inconsistency in the (conservative) Christian worldview. Christians typically reject 4, but it certainly seems to follow from 1-3.

Any thoughts?

[ August 29, 2002: Message edited by: demrald ]

[ August 29, 2002: Message edited by: demrald ]</strong>
Sticking to the theist perspective, I'd say God wants us to do his dirtywork. Otherwise why would he require to pass his words on, or need followers period?
God puts in his 2 cts after you kick te bucket, and that's supposed to be ample incentive.

As far as the word of God ultimately not making any sense goes; what else is new?
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Old 09-01-2002, 06:50 PM   #36
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Sticking to the theist perspective, I'd say God wants us to do his dirtywork. Otherwise why would he require to pass his words on, or need followers period? God puts in his 2 cts after you kick te bucket, and that's supposed to be ample incentive.
What about whether or not God can be said to be moral?
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Old 09-03-2002, 05:40 AM   #37
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demrald:
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It has to be one or the other: morality is dictated (stated) by God, or morality is what God wants. It is possible for these two to be in conflict, as in the case of theists who believe that God has said it is wrong to refrain from preventing rapes or murders when possible to do so, yet God does not prevent them, meaning God does not want to (because if God wanted to, God would).
Restating what I said. We agree so far.

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This contravenes premise 1, or means that morality is relative, which theists who subscribe to divine command theory reject.
Perhaps. Your premise 1 assumes "morality" is a standard apart from God against which he can be measured. Most divine command theorist I've heard do not actually believe this. They believe God defines morality. Morality only has meaning with respect to humans. To define God as moral or immoral is a meaningless statement to these people. In effect, I believe your premise 1 is viewed by divine theorists to be false. God is not moral. God is also not immoral.

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We still have a contradiction if God is the standard.
I don't think divine theorists believe God is the standard. They believe God is the authority. He sets rules that must be obeyed. Period. This is the problem I have with divine command theory. It essentially renders right and wrong in terms of commands and obedience. My problem with divine command theory is that God is not actually a standard, just an autocrat. That seems like a sad way to view right and wrong to me.

Jamie

[ September 03, 2002: Message edited by: Jamie_L ]</p>
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Old 09-03-2002, 10:13 AM   #38
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If premise 1 is true, it means nothing. If premise 1 falsie, it still means nothing.
demrald: This is nonsense. If the argument is valid, the truth of premise one has important implications.
dk: Wag the dog. An argument is intelligible when the underlying premises are sound, sound being that which communicates and idea consistently, logically, and coherently. The implications of an unintelligible argument is nil or misleading. The idea of a ‘perfect morality’ communicates an order of absolute determinism inconsistent with values of right and wrong. As I understand it, morality regulates conduct with reason by forms of right and wrong suited to human nature.
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dk: In the strictest sense justice is: “giving to each person that which is due, nothing more or less”. Mercy transcends justice and law with faith, hope and charity. Hey, what is a moral quality?
demrald: Would you consider being unjust or unmerciful to be immoral qualities? Why or why not? Tentatively, let's define 'moral quality' as "a right, good, or ethically proper characteristic of a being."
dk: - Tentative or otherwise the concept of “perfect morality” is flawed. Morality regulates conduct to protect the greater good (potential) of humanity and those things over which people have dominion. “What is good?” remains an open and non-trivial question of potential, well beyond the domain of positive human knowledge. Justice reconciles moral principles to the particulars with judgments on a case by case basis. Therefore moral quality resides in judgments of the active intellect, not the depository of positive human knowledge.
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dk: God created people with free will. . . hmmm.
demrald: Could you explain how this is in any way relevant to my argument?
dk: - I’ve already argued the premise of “a perfectly moral [g][G]ods][ess][es]” is nonsense because it contemplates the regulation of supreme good. To suggest supreme good should be dispensed, horded or rationed by supreme law is unreasonable hence immoral. The greater good flows from the intimacy of good will returned by the currents of social intercourse. Morality serves (regulates) under the principle of subsidiarity to protect the innocent and vulnerable from the corruptions that malign the currents of social intercourse with murder, lies, theft, infidelity, and false promises. Rooting out corruptions in totality is wrong (unreasonable) because in practical terms in means “to throw the baby out with the dirty bath water”. People have free will and that makes human life good, but free will also makes the world an imperfect place.
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demrald: This is simply begging the question, as you previously said "The power people have over evil comes from God, so the point is meaningless," and I asked how that follows. You have simply restated the proposition I previously asked you to support.
dk: - God being the supreme good is relevant only if God exists in a dual or plural reality. Why? If evil/good are both an aspect of [g][G]ods][ess][es] (the supreme good) then free will becomes an illusion of the ego (absolute monism), and evil a spurious concept.
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dk: If people are the measure of all things then God’s has no part in human affairs.
demrald: Do you have a hermeneutical justification for Protagoras meaning this? If so, I would love to see it, but in another thread, please.
dk: - A hermeneutical justification for moral relativism? To date I’ve found none to be very persuasive.
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dk: At the start of this post I thought you had a good idea, to formulate a logical argument about God from evil.
demrald: This is not a logical argument from evil (although I said it was "basically another formulation of the logical argument from evil,", I also qualified that it is not intended to disprove God's existence, as the LAE usually is) and the argument you presented following this line has absolutely nothing to do with my argument. As such, it will be ignored.
dk: - You explicitly said, “Rather than disproving God's existence, this argument attempts to demonstrate an inconsistency in the (conservative) Christian worldview. Christians typically reject 4, but it certainly seems to follow from 1-3.” To me a Christian worldview entails the open ended contemplation of “What is good?” that befuddles moral relativists. I suggested an alternative argument, to start from “What is evil” because the subject is so much more malleable and close ended.

[ September 03, 2002: Message edited by: dk ]</p>
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Old 09-03-2002, 10:21 AM   #39
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Your premise 1 assumes "morality" is a standard apart from God against which he can be measured.
Not necessarily. I've known people who have presuppositionalist tendencies to assert that God was perfectly moral.
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Most divine command theorist I've heard do not actually believe this. They believe God defines morality. Morality only has meaning with respect to humans. To define God as moral or immoral is a meaningless statement to these people. In effect, I believe your premise 1 is viewed by divine theorists to be false. God is not moral. God is also not immoral.
The argument cannot show these people to be inconsistent, then. Though, if they were to claim, "God is good" (which I believe is itself stated in the Bible), I suppose they would need to explain how this is not ascribing a moral attribute to God.
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I don't think divine theorists believe God is the standard.
Perhaps not, but I was simply pointing out that God could be the standard for morality and their stilly be a worldview conflict for some Christians.
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Old 09-03-2002, 10:30 AM   #40
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dk
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An argument is intelligible when the underlying premises are sound, sound being that which communicates and idea consistently, logically, and coherently.
Where are you getting this? I've never seen such a description applied to arguments, and it's nonsensical, from the standpoint of logic per se, to talk about "sound premises." Arguments can be sound; premises cannot.
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The idea of a ‘perfect morality’ communicates an order of absolute determinism inconsistent with values of right and wrong.
What justifies this conclusion? More importantly, how is it relevant to my argument?
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Tentative or otherwise. . . knowledge.
This isn't an argument about the epistemic or metaethical status of normative ethics, nor will those issues be addressed here. Perhaps you're looking for RR&P?
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I’ve already argued. . . promises.
Spouting further irrelevant nonsense like this doesn't make your previous assertions relevant in any sense.
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God being the supreme good is relevant only if God exists in a dual or plural reality. Why? If evil/good are both an aspect of [g][G]ods][ess][es] (the supreme good) then free will becomes an illusion of the ego (absolute monism), and evil a spurious concept.
And again. . . Earth to dk!
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A hermeneutical justification for moral relativism?
No, a hermeneutical justification that Protagoras was promoting moral relativism. In a seperate thread, however, please.
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I suggested an alternative argument, to start from “What is evil” because the subject is so much more malleable and close ended.
If you have an "alternative argument" you would like to see addressed, you're free to start a thread on it. As it stands, this thread is intended to address the argument made in the OP.
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