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01-12-2002, 03:02 PM | #121 | |||
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01-12-2002, 09:58 PM | #122 | ||||||||||||
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50,000 women in prison then (.6)(50,000) = x = 30,000 were sexually assaulted as women. 30,000 women in prison then (.6)(30,000) = x = 18,000 were sexually assaulted as women. 25,000 women in prison then (.6)(25,000) = x = 15,000 were sexually assaulted as women. See how that works, you need read up some on basic algebra. Quote:
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[ January 13, 2002: Message edited by: dk ] [ January 13, 2002: Message edited by: dk ]</p> |
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01-14-2002, 12:58 AM | #123 |
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dk: The US constitution was first interpreted as a secular document around 1950, so its fair to say the US was a Christian nation until 1950. If Christian women have been forbidden to leave the house its news to me.
Where did you get this nonsense? The US has always been a secular state; the first cases to reach the Supreme Court on the issue were quite early. The Treaty of Tripoli (1796) written a couple of hundred years ago, confirms the US was not in any sense founded on any religion. In Reynolds v US (1878) the Supreme Court cited Jefferson's famous "wall of separation" quote in its conclusions. Cases on the religion clause go back to 1799. <a href="http://members.tripod.com/~candst/toc.htm" target="_blank">http://members.tripod.com/~candst/toc.htm</a> contains some excellent background material, lists of cases, and responses to distortions from the Christian Right on this matter. The Constitution does not mention god, and the where it is referred to in the Dec. of Independence it is the Deistic god of nature, and not the Canaanite Sky god Ya/Yahweh/Yao whom Christians worship that is meant. Further, in the Constitution, secularism is implicit in the forbidding of a religious test for office. I’m not a statistician for the USDOJ, but I’ve been told the USDOJ assert a causal affect only where warranted by a rigid processes, reproduced, and from independent sources. It is my observation that academic social researchers use considerably lower standards. I don't know what USDOJ you know of, but in the one in the US on my planet, the researchers at the DOJ have generally gone through some kind of academic program and standards of research vary according to funding and politics. Sometimes they are excellent, sometimes not. Most academic work, because it must satisfy standards, including peer review and publication, is to a high standard, and certainly comparable to, if not exceeding, government standards. Michael [ January 14, 2002: Message edited by: turtonm ]</p> |
01-14-2002, 11:56 AM | #124 | |
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And judging from his odd conspiracy theories, dk seems as if he has been living in a grove of birch trees for too long. To be specific, John Birch trees |
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01-14-2002, 02:05 PM | #125 | |||||||
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You say that in 1970 it was possible to determine with reliable precision that 60% of women who were in prison in 1979 were sexually abused as children. You say that in 1999 it was possible to determine with reliable precision that 60% of women who were in prison in 1999 were sexually abused as children. It seems therefore that there is a method how to determine with reliable precision how many percent of women were sexually abused as children at any time in the sample of women who are in prison. My question was: If there is such a reliable method, why not to use this method to the general population of women, and thereby determine with reliable precision how many percent of women in general were sexually abused as children? Then you would not need to do this argument: Quote:
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Ales: Imagine in a society there is 1 000 000 women, 10% of which have been sexually abused as children, i.e. 100 000. In prison there are 6000 women, out of which 3600 were sexually abused as children. After 29 years the total number of women is the same, the number of sexually abused women decreases to 80 000. The number of women in prison is now 79 000 out of which 47400 were sexually abused. You can of course suppose p~q, and make your argument, but you didn't show any argument for this. I believe that guesses at p and q and also guesses at the number of sexually abused children are available in USA, as they are in Czech Rep. and all your antics is useless. Quote:
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[ January 14, 2002: Message edited by: Ales ]</p> |
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01-15-2002, 05:41 AM | #126 | ||||||
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[ January 15, 2002: Message edited by: dk ]</p> |
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01-15-2002, 07:10 AM | #127 | |||||
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[ January 15, 2002: Message edited by: dk ]</p> |
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01-15-2002, 11:53 AM | #128 | |
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[ January 15, 2002: Message edited by: dk ]</p> |
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01-15-2002, 02:40 PM | #129 | |
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Also, public schools are much older than the 1960's; there wasn't some utopia of Christian Madrassas just before then. And here are some examples of what I consider real anti-family sentiments: Matthew 8:21-22, Luke 9:59-62 -- one must leave one's dead relatives behind. Matthew 10:21, Matthew 10:35-37, Matthew 19:29, Mark 10:29, Luke 12:53, Luke 14:26, Luke 20:35 -- families either will be, or ought to be broken up; one must desert one's family for Jesus Christ. Matthew 12:47-49, Mark 3:31-34, Luke 2:43-49, Luke 8:20-21, John 2:4 -- examples of Jesus Christ showing disrespect for his own family. Yes, this is Jesus Christ himself speaking, at least according to his biographers. So dk must therefore conclude that Jesus Christ is one of the biggest enemies of "THE family" that there ever was. [ January 15, 2002: Message edited by: lpetrich ]</p> |
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01-15-2002, 03:20 PM | #130 |
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dk: The ideology of secularism was founded about 1850 by George Jacob Holyoake. You’re getting the cart before the horse.
The word "secularism" may date from 1850, but the US Constitution's secular status was established long before that. As Madison wrote: "Every new & successful example therefore of a perfect separation between ecclesastical and civil matters, is of importance. And I have no doubt that every new example, will succeed, as every past one has done, in shewing that religion and goverment will both exist in greater purity, the less they are mixed together." dk: The defining phrase is “The Wall of Separation between Church and State”, and wasn’t used to interpret the Constitution until U.S. Supreme Court ;EVERSON v. BOARD OF EDUCATION OF EWING TP., 330 U.S. 1 (1947) and U.S. Supreme Court ; MCCOLLUM V. BOARD OF EDUCATION , 333 U.S. 203 (1948) . I don’t care what the Christian Right or Agnostic Left says, this was the first time Jefferson’s “figure of speech” was used by the Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution of the US as a purely secular document. Well, since Jefferson used it to interpret the relationship between Church and State in 1802, you have no case. Since it was used by the Supreme Court first in 1878, you have no case. Here is Chief Justice Waite's opinion on the matter: Accordingly, at the first session of the first Congress the amendment now under consideration was proposed with others by Mr. Madison. It met the views of the advocates of religious freedom, and was adopted. Mr. Jefferson afterwards, in reply to an address to him by a committee of the Danbury Baptist Association (8 id. 113), took occasion to say: 'Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between man and his God; that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship; that the legislative powers of the government reach actions only, and not opinions,-I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should 'make no law respecting an establishment of religion or prohibiting the free exercise thereof,' thus building a wall of separation between church and State. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in 1878 cited Jefferson's 1802 letter and used that phrase "wall of separation." That's in 1878. A long time before 1950. Of course, I noticed you ignored the Treat of Tripoli (1796), which bluntly states that the US government is not in any sense founded on religion. Clearly the Constitution was interpreted as a secular document from the earliest days of the Republic. It's irrelevant what you "care," the quotes are there. Michael |
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