Sauron

I realize this is a big question, but I am looking for scholarly rebuttals of the KJV only arguments. I seem to recall there was something in this forum a few weeks ago on this topic.

If someone could point me to it, I would appreciate it.

Thanks.

TheDiddleyMan

Check out James White's book, The King James Only Controversy. Also, check out his web site: <a href="http://www.aomin.org" target="_blank">www.aomin.org</a> where he has some stuff in his apologetics section.

TheDiddleyMan

CX

This debate is actually more subtle than it looks on the surface. What's at issue here is not really differences in English translation, but rather the Greek manuscripts used as sources. In the NT The KJV relies largely on a handful of late(13th century or later) Greek manuscripts in the Byzantine family of texts. Conversely most modern translations are based on the Aland's critical text (Novum Testamentum Graece 27th edition/United Bible Society 4th edition) which uses a wide variety of early manuscripts mostly from the Alexandrian family.

I would do a search on New Testament Text Types with the keywords Alexandrian, Byzantine, Western, Erasmus. An additional problem with Erasmus' edition of the Greek New Testament which stands behind the KJV is that he lacked manuscripts for certain parts of the NT and so used Latin translations and translated those back into Greek.

Ultimately though, KJV only doctrines are a result of dogma rather than critical thinking. Consequently it is futile to entertain any kind of reasoned debate with a KJV only advocate.