Dr Rick

Pedophilia may have some "innateness," but it is a psychiatric disorder known as a paraphilia, or sexual perversion.

It is not a sexual orientation.

The disorder does not have any known genetic component and is likely due to a combination of organic and environmental factors.

There have been abnormalities identified in some brain-mapping studies indicating that the disorder may be partially attributable to neurodevelopmental abnormalities in the temporal regions mediating sexual arousal and erotic discrimination and the frontal regions mediating the cognitive aspects of sexual desire and behavioral inhibition. These abnormalities have been hypothesized to arise from some severe emotional or cognitive childhood trauma such as sexual abuse (many pedophiles have been victims of sexual abuse themselves). In this way, pedophiles develop deviant pedophilic arousal. Concommitant personality pathology, specifically sociopathy and cognitive distortions, is thought to result in inadequate inhibition of pedophilic behavior. Most pedophiles appear to have poor impulse contol. Female sex offenders have been reported as having a high incidence of psychiatric disorders, but reports on female pedophiles are limited, and their development may occur along different lines. It's not clear why this guys wife would have participated in his perversions as described in the OP.

Rick

[ November 07, 2002: Message edited by: rbochnermd ]</p>

Skepticos

I have not studied the issue, but my armchair belief is that an attraction to children is just another manifestation of that crazy thing we call human sexuality. So, I never condemn an individual for being attracted to children, but I do condemn the individual if he or she acts upon said impulses with non-consenting individuals.

But, what constitutes a consenting individual is an entirely different matter.

- Skepticos

Vesica

rbochnermd -

While I found your post very intresting I do not see how something being a recognized psychiatric disorder excludes it from being innate (wether partially or entirely). There are a number of organic disorder listed in the DSM IV (as well as a number of disorders that a) few seek treatment for and b) do not hamper quality of life....such as a strong aversion to cheese.

After all we do not need to drag the skeltons out of the DSM's closet do we??

brighid

Dr. Rick,

I have read that there is a difference between a person who has, in the past, abused a child in this way but said person isn't a pedophile but rather this was expressed because of some sort of situational trauma - such as due to alcoholism, divorce, or something like that. And that this sort of abuser can be treated and has a much lower tendency of repeating such offenses.

Do you know anything about this, or have any information that can be posted here?

Brighid

Glory

Does it really matter if the trait is innate? Alot of intolerable behaviour may be innate. That doesn't in any way indicate that the behvaiour should be tolerated, which seems to be the notion that the guy described in the op is trying to put forth.

Glory

Vesica

Glory -

I was not arguing that if it is inate it should be tolerated...(See earlier post).

The first three sentances of Rick's post is what I had a problem with. They seemed to be arguing:

1) This has a psychiatric name/indentified disorder

2) There is no known genetic or inheritable component.

Therefore, it is probably not innate.

I disagree. The crack at the end of my post refered to the fact that homosexuality was a named and identified psychiatic disorder in earlier versions of the DSM....by Rick's argument above that would mean that homosexuality is not innate either, though that is the prevailing view.

I thought it a weak reason to argue for social/environmental causes for pedaphilia. That is all!

Vesica

Restating the Original Post into Smaller Questions:

1) Is Pedophilia innate?

2) Should/Can we blame these individuals for how they feel?

3) Should/Can we punish them/prevent them from acting on those feelings?

4) Should/can we punish them for those thoughts and feelings in the absence of any action?


Correct me if I have just wandered off topic Bree.

Coragyps

Re biological roots of non-standard sexual orientations, <a href="http://www.newscientist.com/news/news.jsp?id=ns99992943" target="_blank">New Scientist </a>had this item of a pedophile who lost all desire for the kiddies when his brain tumor was removed. Surely out of the ordinary, but brain miswiring doesn't have to involve tumors every time.

Bree

• Is pedophilia innate?
• Should/Can we blame these individuals for how they feel?
• Should/Can we punish them/prevent them from acting on those feelings?
• Should/can we punish them for those thoughts and feelings in the absence of any action?

Yep, that's about it, in a nutshell.

[ November 07, 2002: Message edited by: Bree ]</p>

Dr Rick

I don't either; I didn't mean to imply that I do in my post.

<strong> I would not draw your conclusion from what I posted nor from the available data. Innate is not synonymous with genetic or heritable.

Rick

[ November 07, 2002: Message edited by: rbochnermd ]</p>