HelenM

Hi there

Well, firstly, it's what the Greek says and means that matters.

The related verb is used here:

Mark 14:70 But again he denied it. And after a little while again the bystanders said to Peter, "Certainly you are one of them; for you are a Galilean." 71 But he began to invoke a curse on himself and to swear, "I do not know this man of whom you speak.

I looked up the other meanings and I can't see a reason to think it is supposed to mean specifically the 'curse' of 'eternal condemnation'. That's what I object to about the NIV translation. I just don't believe it's that specific, although you could be right that the NIV translators were attempting to strengthen what Paul said, to counteract changes in the English language such that 'accursed' has lost its strength.

In my opinion, it would depend what their backgrounds are and whose opinions predominate, as well as on sheer numbers of translators.

Yes, I think it's the most popular version. When I'm feeling particular I will read the NKJV in preference to the NIV. I think it's similar to the RSV.

Thanks for your response, Alistair

(Oh, I suppose I didn't need to say your name again - how American of me...I've been here too long )

take care
Helen