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Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
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#121 | |
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#122 | |
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#123 | |
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#124 | |
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and, replace the word atheism with naturalism. |
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#125 | |
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#126 |
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I would like to point out that,
P1- A cause must precede the effect. P2- There was nothing at all that preceded the universe, since time itself began at the big bang. P3- Therefore, the universe cannot have had a cause. |
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#127 | |
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if p2 is true then the universe does not exist right now. because within "nothing" is the absence of the possibility of anything. |
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#128 |
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Thomaq,
Essentially, your question is the same as asking, �What was going on infinity years ago?� The very nature of the notion of infinity implies that we cannot offer a meaningful answer to this question. Any answer of the form, �Well, XYZ was happening�, is unsatisfactory since you can follow up with, �Well, what happened before that?� There is no question that �God� resolves infinity paradoxes, but this doesn�t make God any more �real� than imaginary numbers (i), which resolve the paradox: Sqrt(x) = -1. At some point humans may develop a capacity to understand infinity differently that we do now. But until then, there is no meaningful answer to the question you�re posing. But that doesn�t mean we can�t all be decent, compassionate, thoughtful people eh? ![]() MHO, Deke |
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#129 | |
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to say that someday we might understand it differently is to say that someday we might understand married bachelors differently or square circles,etc. |
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#130 | ||
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Yes, in fact, that involves changing definitions and discarding old, bad theory. That's not fallacious at all, this is a scientific question. |
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