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12-06-2002, 02:38 PM | #51 | |
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Unless, of course, it is your claim that the gospel writers were incompetent when they reported the number of young men they allegedly saw. |
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12-06-2002, 03:01 PM | #52 | |||
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12-06-2002, 03:11 PM | #53 | |
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12-06-2002, 03:38 PM | #54 |
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No only is required. The authors used the singular. The singular is only used when one of an item is present. Otherwise, the plural is required.
In fact, for the author to say that they entered the tomb and saw only one man would be linguisiticaly odd. It would suggest that they were expecting more than one man, and since they weren't expecting any, there is simply no way that 'only' could have been part of that account. The only other explanation is that there were more than one but the authors chose to write in a way that suggests there was only one. I'd call that incompetence. You also might notice how many times I've used only in this post. To emphasis singularity is only one of only's uses. To suggest it is required to indicate that only one of something is present is absurd. The contradiction stands. [ December 06, 2002: Message edited by: Family Man ]</p> |
12-06-2002, 04:25 PM | #55 | ||
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12-06-2002, 04:38 PM | #56 |
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And as Family Man pointed out, your argument doesn't hold water.
That contradiction stands as well. so far you're 0/2 |
12-06-2002, 04:43 PM | #57 | ||||
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12-06-2002, 04:47 PM | #58 | |
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But, in a way, you two are right. IF we insert words like "only" into the text that just aren't there, it IS difficult to reconcile. However, if we just go by the actual text, it reconciles very nicely. Now, does anyone have an argument that doesn't rely on words that aren't there? |
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12-06-2002, 04:59 PM | #59 | |
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Of course, 'Family Man and others' would only be proper with three or more. If exactly two, 'Family Man and another' would be required to demonstrate your competence. |
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12-06-2002, 05:14 PM | #60 | |
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