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Old 07-18-2005, 06:40 PM   #601
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Originally Posted by long winded fool
And I have proven that this practice is irrational in a social context.
Your 'proofs' depend on assumptions which are in dispute. I don't want to reopen those disputes; I think we've taken them as far as we can. I just want to put the point on record.
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Old 07-18-2005, 06:42 PM   #602
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Originally Posted by long winded fool
The law doesn't decide who is and who isn't a human.
How do you justify saying that?
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Old 07-19-2005, 12:37 AM   #603
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Originally Posted by long winded fool
Abortion is homicide and is therefore a violation of inalienable human rights.
And yet you won't deal with the fact that god (or nature, if you prefer) is the great abortionist, killing far more unborn than those she/he/it allows to come to term.
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Old 07-19-2005, 08:41 AM   #604
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Originally Posted by J-D
How do you justify saying that?
Because if it were the case, then African people didn't become a member of the species until the 1800's. Or do we have to take into account tribal law? If so, which law is correct?

"Homo sapiens sapiens" is, generally speaking, an objective classification in modern science and is not subject to individual interpretation. While the point at which primates evolved into humans might be blurry, you must agree that there is no dispute among living humans. The fact that we don't know exactly when our ancestors went from ape to man is irrelevant because no one is arguing that apes are the ones being denied rights in legal abortion. There are no living animals that any scientist believes should be included in the species that are not already.

Let me expand on my statement: The law does not decide who is and isn't a human, it decides which humans have the right to exist.
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Old 07-19-2005, 08:48 AM   #605
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
And yet you won't deal with the fact that god (or nature, if you prefer) is the great abortionist, killing far more unborn than those she/he/it allows to come to term.
I agree with this. Nature is the great abortionist. Nature is the great murderer. I do not advocate that this practice become law because this practice is anti-social, and, living in a society, I must assume that society is a good thing.

This assumption is in dispute however. J-D points out that homicide for the purposes of mercy might not necessarily be wrong if suffering is a worse fate than death, and that this is a possible justification for legal homicide. However, I don't see how homicide could not be unacceptably detrimental to society even if suffering were more detrimental. (In fact, I don't see how it is logically possible for suffering to be more detrimental to society than death.) If it can be better to wipe out a society than to let it suffer, then society and survival is no longer the greatest good. Escape from suffering is. I do not accept this premise. I think that it is logically flawed. I think that, regardless of suffering, the goal of every society that has ever existed has been, and continues to be, survival. What other reason is there for two animals to cooperate? Indeed, what is the purpose of the desire to escape from suffering?
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Old 07-19-2005, 08:54 AM   #606
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Hey everyone, interesting thread you've got going, I've just noticed a little bit of unfriendliness in the last few pages, so just to remind you to keep things polite and civil, and please refrain from backhanded comments and snide remarks. Thanks! and back to lurking for me!
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Old 07-19-2005, 09:45 AM   #607
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Originally Posted by long winded fool
I agree with this. Nature is the great abortionist. Nature is the great murderer. I do not advocate that this practice become law because this practice is anti-social, and, living in a society, I must assume that society is a good thing.
Logically, then, you are advocating doing everything possible to preserve the continued existence of a zygote--and you have some legal support for your view.

Here in Hawaii a woman was recently convicted of damaging the fetus she was carrying by being addicted to metamphetamines.

That would seem to mean that you--and the law--are on the way of keeping pregnant women from using any substance known to damage the fetus--alcohol, many drugs, caffeine--even foods that contribute to obesity.

In fact, the ultimate result of applying this view to society, would meant that any woman of child-bearing age would have to be carefully and constantly monitored--perhaps physically restricted--in order to prevent a possible miscarriage.

I wonder how women would react to your proposal.
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Old 07-19-2005, 11:21 PM   #608
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-Let’s dispense with the silliness, first:
Quote:
If you are actually interested in discussion, then rather than argue with you, I will address the part of your post that seems honestly applicable to the debate with a simple question. You think I am shifting the meaning of the word human from one premise to another. Fair enough.

You say:

"the term human in human rights has a different meaning than the word human in human fetus."

So I ask you this: Do you agree that substituting the word "fetus" for any other type of human (child, woman, man, grandma, lawyer, doctor, etc.) in this statement does not change it in any way?
No.

Quote:
Why or why not?
Because the assertion is lame.

Substitute “human fetus�? with “human woman�? and you end up with a redundancy, not a meaningful term. There is no such thing as a “non-human woman�?; all women are human, so there is no use for the term "human woman".

There can be “human doctors�?; though the term is awkward, it could refer to the type of patients treated or to the characteristics of the doctor, but no one using the English language properly would mean it to be a reference to the species of the doctor. There are “inhuman doctors,�? and even though the term "human woman" makes no sense, the term “inhuman women�? does. “Josef Mengele was an inhuman doctor�? and "Queen Mary was an inhuman woman" does not mean that either of them weren't homo sapiens, it means that they were very cruel. But it would be idiotic to claim that a fetus is either “inhuman�? or "human" in this context. There are “human fetuses,�? but there are no “inhuman fetuses�?; there are “non-human fetuses�? such as monkey or baboon fetuses, but there are no "non-human men"

These differences in grammar and language occur because the term human has more than one meaning. When it is applied to fetuses, it a reference to taxonomy as any other meaning wouldn't make sense. Human applied to born humans and to many characteristics of humans and their rights, on the other hand, often refers to something other than taxonomy.

In other words, the term human has more than one meaning; your false claim that the meaning of the word as it applies to fetuses must be the only one to be used in human rights is an equivocation fallacy.

Now let’s move on to the falsehoods:

Quote:
Originally Posted by long winded fool
Dr. Rick, ignoring the sarcastic attempts to sound intelligent in your post always seems to leave very little left in the way of actual argumentation. So, as you so enjoy reminding everyone, from here on out I do not understand what the phrases "non sequitur, equivocation, unusual assertions post hoc," and any other first year debate jargon mean, nor do I understand how they apply to my argument. I am just a long winded fool, remember. (You are the last person I would expect to forget that.) So from now on, any big, fancy words that are not used in everyday conversation which appear in your post without sufficient explanation as to not only what they mean, but how they apply to the conversation, I will assume they mean "long winded fool is making an ass out of me." If you desire to converse with me, you will have to actually communicate, rather than throwing around latin phrases that most people have to look up and assuming that everyone understands exactly what you're talking about. Maybe everyone here is on exactly the same wavelength as you, but at least have the common courtesy to explain to a fool like me why I am wrong, rather than just assuring me that I am.
You somehow missed the last twenty-plus web pages?

Right.

You didn't see this:
Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by long winded fool
Science, and therefore the english dictionary...
So now lwf is claiming that science somehow dictates the contents of the dictionary.

The second part isn’t much better:

Quote:
...defines human one way...
From dictionary.com: hu?man:
A member of the genus Homo and especially of the species H. sapiens.
A person.
Of, relating to, or characteristic of humans.
Having or showing those positive aspects of nature and character regarded as distinguishing humans from other animals
Subject to or indicative of the weaknees, imperfections, and fragility associated with humans
Having the form of a human.
Made up of humans
Consisting of members of the family Hominidae...

The English dictionary has several different definitions for the word, human, not just one as lwf has repeatedly and erroneously insisted. And "science" has nothing to do with the majority of them.

Quote:
...and law defines human another way.
lwf' often stumbles around his contradictions and fallacies; in the process, he occasionally offers evidence that he can glimpse the faults in his reasoning. His latest posts seem to acknowledge the distinctly different meanings the word human has depending upon its use in context, even as he mindlessly contradicts himself over and over again with his easily disproven assertion that "there is only one dictionary definition."

He now seems to have admitted the obvious truth that the legal definition of the word human is not the same as the "scientific" (or more accurately, taxonomic) definition of the word, and yet he still hopes to equivocate the meaning of the word human from one context ["science"] into an entirely different context ["law"] to get his claim accepted as “logical.�? That can’t happen, because his claim is premised upon an equivocation fallacy in which he argues that the same word with two different meanings has only one meaning irrespective of its actual meaning in context. Its as nonsensical as inserting the definition of the word blue as it is used in the sentence, “I’ve got the blues�? into the sentence, “I love jazz and the blues.�?

Quote:
Originally Posted by lwf
The Born Alive Infants Protection Act, for one example, establishes [a contradiction] by implied exclusion of fetuses...
It was easy to show that the act only contradicts what lwf has posted.

Quote:
Originally Posted by lwf after its pointed-out that the Born Alive Infants Protection Act only contradicts what lwf has posted, not established law.
Please don't tell me you are now going to adopt Dr. Rick's ridiculous strawman...
lwf first brought up act; it is not a strawman to refute his claim with the wording of the very law he mischaracterised; however, this is a strawman:

Quote:
...I will say this one more time. Long winded fool believes that fetuses do not have legal rights. Do we understand the difference between this and the equally true statement: Long winded fool believes that fetuses ought to have legal rights? Okay? Not only does the word human in law not necessarily include fetuses, it specifically excludes them, as I actually stated in my last post if you are bothering to read them anymore. Now that we can agree that this strawman which purports to refute my argument actually supports it, (I reiterate, fetuses do not have human rights) can we please get back to the actual argument?
That he can admit that fetuses do not have legal rights is not in dispute, so the only thing lwf’s rant supports is that he doesn’t seem to know what a strawman even is. Nonetheless, this isn’t the first time he has tried to argue a claim other than the one he’s insisting he’s “proven�? so many times before:

Quote:
Tell me what is wrong with this statement:

If all humans have certain equal and inalienable rights,
and some humans do not have any rights,
Then either premise 1 or premise 2 is false.
There is nothing wrong with that statement, but it is not the equivocation fallacy lwf has been repeating over and over, either.

This is his fallacious claim:

Quote:
P1: if an aborted organism is a human.
P2: and all humans have the legal right to exist
C1: then abortion is either illegal, or not all humans have the right to exist.
In these two separate assertions, the taxonomic context of human in P1 is not identical to the legal context used in P2; the attempt to assert the taxonomic definition of human in P1 into the legal definition of human in P2 is equivocation. lwf has falsely asserted that:

Quote:
[“Human" is an unequivocal and unambiguous term and there is no possible room for a scale or for arbitrary redefinition of any kind.

A human is an organism that is a member of the family Hominidae and of the genus homo.
...only to contradict himself one webpage later with:
Quote:
...and law defines human another way.
and you didn't see this:
Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by long winded fool
Come on now. I already pointed out the UDHR...Is it conventional wisdom that when the UDHR says:

"Whereas recognition of the inherent dignity and of the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the human family is the foundation of freedom, justice and peace in the world,

Whereas disregard and contempt for human rights have resulted in barbarous acts which have outraged the conscience of mankind, and the advent of a world in which human beings shall enjoy freedom of speech and belief and freedom from fear and want has been proclaimed as the highest aspiration of the common people,

Whereas it is essential, if man is not to be compelled to have recourse, as a last resort, to rebellion against tyranny and oppression, that human rights should be protected by the rule of law...

...Article 2.
Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or international status of the country or territory to which a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non-self-governing or under any other limitation of sovereignty."

that it is referring to all humans and not just some humans? Maybe not, but for the document to make any rational sense, it must be the case. Conventional wisdom aside, and non-legally binding United Nations declarations aside, rational deduction is enough to illustrate that all humans ought to have an inalienable right to exist in a given society.
The dispassionate reader may wonder why lwf chose to skip-over Article 1 in that quote? The answer, of course, is because it contradicts his claims:

UNDHR Article 1.

All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood.


Is it obvious that when the UNDHR uses the word born that it is not referring to fetuses. Clearly, according to the UNDHR, all humans may have rights, but not all fetuses do.
Quote:
The Born Alive Infants Protection Act, for one example, establishes [a contradiction] by implied exclusion of fetuses...And if the goal of laws is to strengthen society, then the only rational course of action is to eliminate contradiction, and the only rational law to eliminate in this particular case of legal contradiction is the law that contributes less to the health of society, right?
If the goal is to "eliminate contradiction", the best place for lwf to start would be with his own claims. The Born Alive Infants Protection Act only contradicts what lwf has posted, not established law. It’s exclusion of fetuses is explicit, not implicit, and it is entirely consistent with the UNDHR’s exclusion of fetuses, too:

The Born Alive Infants Protection Act
Public Law 107-207
U.S. Code
Title 1, Chapter 1: Rules of Construction
Section 8.

''Person'', ''human being'', ''child'', and ''individual'' as including born-alive infant

(a) In determining the meaning of any Act of Congress, or of any ruling, regulation, or interpretation of the various administrative bureaus and agencies of the United States,
the words ''person'', ''human being'', ''child'', and ''individual'', shall include every infant member of the species homo sapiens who is born alive [emphasis added] at any stage of development.

(b) As used in this section, the term ''born alive'', with respect to a member of the species homo sapiens, means the complete expulsion or extraction from his or her mother of that member, at any stage of development, who after such expulsion or extraction breathes or has a beating heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles, regardless of whether the umbilical cord has been cut, and regardless of whether the expulsion or extraction occurs as a result of natural or induced labor, cesarean section, or induced abortion.

(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to affirm, deny, expand, or contract any legal status or legal right applicable to any member of the species homo sapiens at any point prior to being ''born alive'' as defined in this section.

Quote:
You should believe what I say because it makes sense. If it does not make sense, you should not believe what I say. I believe that what I say makes sense, and can explain it. You are free to disagree, but if you cannot explain why, then I must assume that your motive for disagreement is something other than an honest search for truth.
Though lwf's posts don't often make sense, they do sometimes convey a wonderful if unintended irony.
And you've certainly never seen this:

Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by long winded fool
Why not refrain from fertilizing an egg until you have a host who wants it? This simple notion seems lost to so many pro-choicers.

Pro-choicers are overwhelmingly in favor of providing women with the means to prevent fertilization. The only significant opposition to contraception or to making it readily available comes from within the ranks of pro-lifers.

Furthermore, ova can and do get fertilized irrespective of whether or not a host wants it. This isn't just a "simple notion"; it is a fact.

Quote:
This is a false statement...A fertilized egg is the equivalent of a human being because any living organism that is a member of the species homo sapiens is a human being, regardless of physical characteristics or level of development.

lwf's claims rest upon equivocating the term human and its various synonyms. As he himself has noted:

Quote:
The definition of human is a factor because abortion kills an organism that may or may not be a human, depending on the definition,...The question is not in equality and fairness, it is in the definition of human...

He's nailed his own fallacy. lwf's claim is based upon shifting definitions in two separate assertions,
P1:
Quote:
...all humans have the legal right to exist.
and P2:
Quote:
A human being is nothing more than the common designation of the organism homo sapiens.

In these two seperate statements, the taxonomic definition meant by the word human in P1 is not the same as the definition of human being in P2, leading to lwf's false dichotomy:
Quote:
then abortion is either illegal, or not all humans have the right to exist.
As he himself so succinctly put it:
Quote:
...the conclusion depends [up]on the definition of the word in question.
lwf's claim is dependent upon shifting the definitions of the words in his argument. He is inserting a taxonomic definition from P1 into P2, though the wording in P2 is clearly not meant to be defined by taxonomy alone.
Quote:
My basic premise is an unbiased viewpoint stemming from the english dictionary.
Despite having been corrected several times already, lwf doggedly persists in reposting his falsehood. The authors of the Born Alive Infants Protection Act must have had access to English dictionaries, too, when they wrote that the words ''person'', ''human being'', ''child'', and ''individual'', shall include every infant member of the species homo sapiens who is born alive... yet they clearly mean something that does not include fetuses when they use the words human being.

That's because, contrary to lwf's insistence, there are many definitions for the word human and its synonyms. From dictionary.com: hu�?man A member of the genus Homo and especially of the species H. sapiens. A person. Of, relating to, or characteristic of humans. Having or showing those positive aspects of nature and character regarded as distinguishing humans from other animals: an act of human kindness. Subject to or indicative of the weaknesses, imperfections, and fragility associated with humans: a mistake that shows he's only human; human frailty. Having the form of a human. Made up of humans: formed a human bridge across the ice. Consisting of members of the family Hominidae...
And there are literally dozens more. To come this far and then claim that you haven't been shown why you are wrong when you have been shown just that thoroughly and repeatedly is, at best, a mischaracterization.
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Old 07-20-2005, 08:16 AM   #609
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Logically, then, you are advocating doing everything possible to preserve the continued existence of a zygote--and you have some legal support for your view.

Here in Hawaii a woman was recently convicted of damaging the fetus she was carrying by being addicted to metamphetamines.

That would seem to mean that you--and the law--are on the way of keeping pregnant women from using any substance known to damage the fetus--alcohol, many drugs, caffeine--even foods that contribute to obesity.

In fact, the ultimate result of applying this view to society, would meant that any woman of child-bearing age would have to be carefully and constantly monitored--perhaps physically restricted--in order to prevent a possible miscarriage.

I wonder how women would react to your proposal.
But "doing everything possible to preserve life" is not the same thing as refraining from murder. I only ask that the latter be enforced by law. It is not murder for me to sit here at my computer and throw away half of a perfectly good sandwich while children are starving to death in third world countries. It is murder for me to intentionally destroy a child.

That said, yes there are some things women who already are pregnant should not be allowed to do as a safety issue to her fetus. How do women react to this proposal? Do they think that this is a violation of her rights? WHat about the fetus' rights? Simple, just take the fetus' rights away, right? Then there's no contradiction.

For instance, I think that it should be illegal for a construction company to allow a pregnant woman to operate a jackhammer. Is this unreasonable? If a female soldier cannot adequately throw a grenade, should she be allowed to use them in combat? Is this a violation of her human rights? Is this inequality?

The notion of safety to others (fetuses included) can take away a great many human rights. But the one right it cannot take away is the right to exist. As soon as another becomes a direct threat to my life, I am justified in lethal self-defense, and at no other time is lethal force justified.
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Old 07-20-2005, 08:24 AM   #610
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Originally Posted by Dr Rick
-Let’s dispense with the silliness, first:

No.

Because the assertion is lame.

Substitute “human fetus�? with “human woman�? and you end up with a redundancy, not a meaningful term. There is no such thing as a “non-human woman�?; all women are human, so there is no use for the term "human woman".

There can be “human doctors�?; though the term is awkward, it could refer to the type of patients treated or to the characteristics of the doctor, but no one using the English language properly would mean it to be a reference to the species of the doctor. There are “inhuman doctors,�? and even though the term "human woman" makes no sense, the term “inhuman women�? does. “Josef Mengele was an inhuman doctor�? and "Queen Mary was an inhuman woman" does not mean that either of them weren't homo sapiens, it means that they were very cruel. But it would be idiotic to claim that a fetus is either “inhuman�? or "human" in this context. There are “human fetuses,�? but there are no “inhuman fetuses�?; there are “non-human fetuses�? such as monkey or baboon fetuses, but there are no "non-human men"

These differences in grammar and language occur because the term human has more than one meaning. When it is applied to fetuses, it a reference to taxonomy as any other meaning wouldn't make sense. Human applied to born humans and to many characteristics of humans and their rights, on the other hand, often refers to something other than taxonomy.

In other words, the term human has more than one meaning; your false claim that the meaning of the word as it applies to fetuses must be the only one to be used in human rights is an equivocation fallacy.
But I never made this argument, so there is no fallacy. I never claimed that the term 'human' may only be used in the sense of taxonomy, I argue that it should only be used in the sense of taxonomy because any other usage renders rights alienable and inequal. If we look at law in its spirit, rather than just at its letter, it becomes irrational. Legal abortion is not inherently irrational because it uses grammatically incorrect definitions of human, it is irrational compared to the body of law and the purpose of society because it is in violation of the rights it purports to protect. You attribute this argument to me every time, and every time I tell you that it is not the case.


Dr. Rick, tell me what you think of this:

I create a society and establish some laws. One of the laws I establish is: "All dogs have the legal right to exist." I.E. it is illegal to euthanize a dog. A group of people come along and complain about stray dogs. I tell them that the dog catcher will come and relocate them, and neuter them on top of that so that they cannot reproduce. They say that this is not good enough. They say that it ought to be legal to kill stray dogs in order to protect their children who play outside. I think for a moment and decide "that sounds reasonable."

Now here is my question to you: Do I have to change the above law stated in quotes? Or can that law still be in effect with another law making it legal to kill some dogs?

If I were to defend the latter point of view, I would make the claim: "The meaning of the word 'dogs' in the first law has nothing to do with the meaning of the word 'stray dogs' in the second. While stray dogs are dogs, the original law was implicitly written to only include pets."

What do you think of that defense of legal canicide in a society where all dogs have the right to life? Am I grasping at straws?
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