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04-30-2003, 06:39 PM | #11 |
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I'm not quite sure if humans can really *know* things without experiencing them. To use your example of the paralyzed man, even though he held that sort of knowledge in his mind, he had to aquire it through experience first. If we apply your analogy consistantly, then we should come to the following conclusion: men can know things at a certain time in only ones' mind, as long as it's knowledge was *attained* by experience.
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04-30-2003, 06:48 PM | #12 | |
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04-30-2003, 06:56 PM | #13 |
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You're correct that humans can have factual knowledge of other peoples pain, and then compare what people think that they see with what they've already experienced. However, can a person who has never experienced pain at all really empathize with them. Of course, they might be able to understand the emotional stress that may accompany pain, but not the pain itself.
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