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Old 02-19-2003, 09:07 PM   #531
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Originally posted by Beyelzu
Ed




You are so making this up. But I will play along.

Why doesnt god "rescue" homeless people and people with terminal illnesses and people living in a "morally bankrupt america" by having the israelites kill all of them?

or maybe he could send one of those angel dudes?
Hello Beyelzu. Where is the evidence I am making this up? Everything I have said has been based on the "big picture" revealed by the scriptures. First of all the old hebrew theocracy wherein the Israelites lived in no longer exists and God no longer operates thru them. But God does sometimes rescue those who are suffering.
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Old 02-19-2003, 09:38 PM   #532
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Originally posted by Sue Sponte
I find the very premise of this discussion disturbing: questioning whether a non-religious person can distinguish right from wrong. It implies that humans have no ability to judge right from wrong, but rather must garner these concepts solely from literature. For many, that literature is the Christian bible.


Hello Sue. It is nice to have a woman join in this discussion. Thanks for jumping in. I never said that atheists cannot distinguish right from wrong. Since all humans are created in the image of a moral God, we all have a moral conscience. However, my point is that unless you have an objective and rational basis for your morality upon which your conscience can be reinforced, the things you mention below can occur. Because if your conscience does not have this over time your conscience can become distorted, bent, and dulled. And I think I have demonstrated earlier in this thread that unfortunately atheists do not have this basis. Christians have that basis in the moral character of God as revealed by his word and experience.

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Sue: If one has no independent sense of right or wrong, then whether you are "good" or "bad" is solely determined by what someone else tells you to do. This, in turn, creates a very real danger that such a person comes to believe that something objectively very bad (i.e. killing) is somehow a reasoned moral choice.
Exactly, as I stated above.

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Sue: And how does one choose the Bible as having the "right" view on morality before deciding to follow the moral principles one thinks the Bible relates? Absent some independent ability to judge for oneself what is right and wrong, how can you believe that you have chosen a text that promotes admirable, rather than reprehensible, morality concepts?
Being able to truly understand what is good and right requires far more than just following rules in a text. You first use your conscience and realize that on your own you can never completely follow your moral ideals. So realize that only with help can you do such a thing and the best source of that help is the One who created your conscience and upon whose character that conscience is based. And he has chosen as his primary source of communication to us the Bible. As you get to know and experience Him in a relationship thru His Son and study his word, you realize with your conscience that His morality is THE morality. Sometimes this is a long process so don't think it will happen over night.
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Old 02-20-2003, 02:18 AM   #533
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I never said that atheists cannot distinguish right from wrong. Since all humans are created in the image of a moral God, we all have a moral conscience. However, my point is that unless you have an objective and rational basis for your morality upon which your conscience can be reinforced, the things you mention below can occur. Because if your conscience does not have this over time your conscience can become distorted, bent, and dulled.
And it requires a MASSIVE crippling of conscience to believe that the massacre of the Amalekites, or of the Egyptian firstborn, was OK.

Yes, this IS what happens when you have no rational basis for morality.
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And I think I have demonstrated earlier in this thread that unfortunately atheists do not have this basis. Christians have that basis in the moral character of God as revealed by his word and experience.
No, you don't. That's why your morals are screwed.
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Sue: If one has no independent sense of right or wrong, then whether you are "good" or "bad" is solely determined by what someone else tells you to do. This, in turn, creates a very real danger that such a person comes to believe that something objectively very bad (i.e. killing) is somehow a reasoned moral choice.

Exactly, as I stated above.
Earth calling Ed: This is what happened to YOU.
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Sue: And how does one choose the Bible as having the "right" view on morality before deciding to follow the moral principles one thinks the Bible relates? Absent some independent ability to judge for oneself what is right and wrong, how can you believe that you have chosen a text that promotes admirable, rather than reprehensible, morality concepts?

Being able to truly understand what is good and right requires far more than just following rules in a text. You first use your conscience and realize that on your own you can never completely follow your moral ideals. So realize that only with help can you do such a thing and the best source of that help is the One who created your conscience and upon whose character that conscience is based. And he has chosen as his primary source of communication to us the Bible.
No, he hasn't. The Bible is fiction.

But you didn't stop to check. You have hung everything on the false assumption that the Bible is the "Word of God", with NO reason to believe this is actually true. The reason your worldview can't stand up is because it's built on this false foundation.

Sadly, it appears that you DID have a conscience, and remnants of it still remain. Hence your frequent attempts to rewrite the Bible, to make it into a "morally correct" account. Many Christians HAVE achieved this: but they did it through "liberalism". They abandoned the doctrine of Biblical inerrancy, and chose to believe that parts of it were "inspired", but parts were not.
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Old 02-20-2003, 08:22 PM   #534
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Originally posted by NOGO
Ed
No, this was plainly consensual see above. If it was rape then she WOULD cry out, wouldn't you?

ng: This kind of arguement cuts both ways.
If it was consensual then he did not humble her she humbled herself.

Ed:
Actually given God's ideal of sex only within marriage, they both humbled themselves.

NOGO: Fine, so to return to my point ...
It says that HE HUMBLED HER
NOT that they humbled themselves so this is not adultery because as you put it above adultery is when they both humble themselves together.


No, it is adultery because she was betrothed. The scriptures just mention him humbling her because the man is held more responsible for the behavior than the woman because in OT times the man held the leadership positions.

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ng: My point is that since she did not cry they did not know for sure that it was adultery. She may have been afraid for her life etc. etc.

so she is punished (killed) because she did not cry and not because she humbled herself (adultery as you put it). The man on the other hand was punished because he humbled her (ie rape).

It is the uncertainty which makes it different from plain adultery.
The legal code of the ancient hebrews was similar to our modern laws, ie they are not exhaustive. Legal principles are derived from typical cases such as the one we are discussing but then the judges would apply those principles and others to judge the merits and evidences for a specific case. For example they would consider evidence that she may have been afraid for her life.
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Old 02-20-2003, 09:15 PM   #535
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless

jtb: It does not say that Abraham BEGAT David or that David BEGAT Jesus. And it's immediately followed by the "begats" in the actual genealogy!

So you're wrong.

Ed: No, while they are not identical, it IS an example of a genealogy that skipped multiple generations.

jtb: There is no attempt to present Abraham - David - Jesus as a genealogy. I'm not disputing that the phrase "son of" can be used in a metaphorical sense. Jesus is not the only "son of God", for instance (and it is quite likely that Jesus was not regarded as a literal son of God by his immediate followers).


No, "son of " was not metaphorical, in ancient times "son" can also mean descendent of. It is similar to someone today saying that their ancestors came over on the Mayflower. They are recounting a genealogy of their family albeit an abbreviated form. There are different kinds of genealogies detailed ones and abbreviated ones. This plainly WAS a genealogy and you have not provided any evidence to the contrary.

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jtb: A genealogy is a detailed list of names, showing who "begat" whom. The best genealogies also give the age of each person when he begat the next: these are never "metaphorical".
No, see above about different types of genealogies.

Quote:
Ed: No, I Chronicles and Ezra were written at approximately the same time, so the Jews living at the time would have been able to compare each of the books and either corrected them or rejected the one that was incorrect.

jtb: They did not do that. In fact, they NEVER did that. The Bible contains many contradictions between the writings of different authors, in both the Old and the New testaments. Probably, nobody dared to correct these "holy" books.
No, there is evidence in later copies of the scriptures where some scribes DID try to "correct" what they thought were errors.

Quote:
jtb: It is likely that both Chronicles and Ezra were compiled from oral traditions, and that the names missing from Ezra were simply forgotten before they got written down.

Ed: Ezra was a biblical scholar in his time, it would be absurd to believe that He thought there was a grandson of Aaron and a son of David coming up from Babylon with him after the captivity, also he could just go out check for himself. That would be like a well known historian believing that George Washington's son fought with him in the Vietnam War! He would have to be a delusional nutcase! I am afraid your theory fails the test of credulity.

jtb: Many of the books in the Bible were written centuries later (e.g. Daniel). Records were poor, and no actual calendar dates were used in the books that became the Bible. A better analogy would be Walter Raleigh's son fighting in the War of Independence, with no dates given in the history books that would contradict this.

The Bible is a book of stories, Ed. Some historical, some mythical: but all mixed up by people who didn't know the difference between history and myth.
No, you misunderstood my analogy. Ezra was traveling WITH these people back from Babylon! He KNEW that it would be impossible for Aaron's grandson to be traveling with him. Let me restate my analogy, it would be like a Nobel prize winning historian believing that George Washington's son fought with this historian in the Vietnam War! Now do you see absurdity of your claim? So this is plainly an example of a deliberately abbreviated genealogy.

Quote:
Ed: And there are many other examples.

jtb: Of course there are! Like the contradictory genealogies of Jesus, for instance. But they're ALL Biblical errors. This is clear from the specific count of "fourteen generations" in Matthew.

Ed: Fraid not, see above.

Nothing "above" addresses the specific problem of Matthew's "fourteen generations". You have failed to provide any credible answer to this problem.

Therefore, when you say "Fraid not, see above", you are attempting to direct us to a rebuttal which exists only as a hallucination in your own increasingly addled mind.
No, I have demonstrated with the Ezra genealogy that often there are gaps in biblical genealogies.

Quote:
jtb: Nor have you actually provided any support for the claim that ANY culture has EVER used this bizarre "X became the ancestor of Y when he fathered the one destined to become the NEXT ancestor of Y" system.

I win, you lose (again).

Ed: See above. I never claimed that other cultures used that type of genealogy, only the hebrews.

jtb: And there is no evidence that the Hebrews did either! This is apologetic nonsense, invented in an attempt to patch up one of the contradictions between the Bible and actual history: the date of the Flood.

As there WAS no world-inundating Flood since the appearance of humans on this planet, this is entirely unnecessary. Why invent this nonsense when you can simply use Biblical hermeneutics to argue that the Flood was a local event, as Hugh Ross has done?
There is no computation or summation of these genealogies in the scriptures to fix a date for creation or the flood as there is for the exodus so if the author had intended such a computation, he would have included it. Also Moses lived among the Egyptians and had a high office so he would have access to the Egyptian historical records that show plainly that people lived before 6000 years ago, so he would not intend for these genealogies to be summed. I have yet to be convinced that the flood was local but with more evidence I could be convinced.
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Old 02-21-2003, 01:55 AM   #536
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No, "son of " was not metaphorical, in ancient times "son" can also mean descendent of. It is similar to someone today saying that their ancestors came over on the Mayflower. They are recounting a genealogy of their family albeit an abbreviated form. There are different kinds of genealogies detailed ones and abbreviated ones. This plainly WAS a genealogy and you have not provided any evidence to the contrary.
It is absolutely clear FROM THE BIBLE. The Abraham-David-Jesus linkup is IMMEDIATELY followed by the DETAILED genealogy. The author is plainly saying "Jesus was descended from David who was descended from Abraham, and here's the actual genealogy which shows HOW."
Quote:
Ed: No, I Chronicles and Ezra were written at approximately the same time, so the Jews living at the time would have been able to compare each of the books and either corrected them or rejected the one that was incorrect.

jtb: They did not do that. In fact, they NEVER did that. The Bible contains many contradictions between the writings of different authors, in both the Old and the New testaments. Probably, nobody dared to correct these "holy" books.


No, there is evidence in later copies of the scriptures where some scribes DID try to "correct" what they thought were errors.
Then they did a VERY poor job of it. The Bible still contains references to polytheism in the Old Testament, and even in the NT Matthew ascribes "prophecies" to the wrong prophet.
Quote:
No, you misunderstood my analogy. Ezra was traveling WITH these people back from Babylon! He KNEW that it would be impossible for Aaron's grandson to be traveling with him. Let me restate my analogy, it would be like a Nobel prize winning historian believing that George Washington's son fought with this historian in the Vietnam War! Now do you see absurdity of your claim? So this is plainly an example of a deliberately abbreviated genealogy.
How do you KNOW that this book was written by a man who was travelling WITH these people back from Babylon?

You DON'T.
Quote:
Nothing "above" addresses the specific problem of Matthew's "fourteen generations". You have failed to provide any credible answer to this problem.

Therefore, when you say "Fraid not, see above", you are attempting to direct us to a rebuttal which exists only as a hallucination in your own increasingly addled mind.


No, I have demonstrated with the Ezra genealogy that often there are gaps in biblical genealogies.
I'm not disputing that there are GAPS, Ed.

I'm disputing that they would DELIBERATELY leave out entire generations, and THEN say "these are ALL the generations", and put in a COUNT of the generations which is ALSO deliberately wrong!

The Bible says "ALL the generations".

The Bible says "FOURTEEN generations".

How much CLEARER can this possibly BE?
Quote:
There is no computation or summation of these genealogies in the scriptures to fix a date for creation or the flood as there is for the exodus so if the author had intended such a computation, he would have included it. Also Moses lived among the Egyptians and had a high office so he would have access to the Egyptian historical records that show plainly that people lived before 6000 years ago, so he would not intend for these genealogies to be summed.
The author DID include the information which allows the Flood to be dated as surely as the Exodus can be dated.

But historians now believe that the entire Exodus story was fictional. Not just the miraculous parts, but the whole premise that the Jews were ever captives in Egypt and then left in one large group. There is no archaeological trace of them in the places they're supposed to have stayed at, and DNA analysis shows that the Jews are identical to the Palestinians except for the European genes picked up after the Diaspora.

There is no reason to assume that Moses existed, or that he held high office and had access to Egyptian historical records even if he DID exist. Many aspects of the Moses story (including the baby in the floating basket) are blatant rip-offs of earlier myths.

They're just dates ascribed to a fictional genealogy written centuries later by a primitive people with no access to any historical records that would contradict their story.
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Old 02-21-2003, 07:18 AM   #537
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Ed
No, it is adultery because she was betrothed. The scriptures just mention him humbling her because the man is held more responsible for the behavior than the woman because in OT times the man held the leadership positions
So if the man was married or engaged and the girl was single then she would have humbled him, right?

Very interesting. However, I doubt that you will find an example in the bible to show your point.

Ed, the word "leadership" is misued. The word "dominance" is more appropriate.
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Old 02-21-2003, 10:06 PM   #538
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Originally posted by winstonjen

Originally posted by Ed
No, the concept of original sin is based on representative justice. Like a lawyer representing you in a court case. Adam and Eve were chosen by God to be our representatives for a one time case, your parents and the Amalekite parents were not chosen as the children's representatives.

wj: Ed, I think you're using a strawman to confuse the issue. Please stop trying to complicate matters more than needed. If you are trying to win the argument by making the discussion so difficult that everyone gives up against you because they can't understand what you're saying, please stop.
Huh? It is not that complicated. I am just trying to dispel myths about the doctrine of original sin.
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Old 02-22-2003, 09:10 PM   #539
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Originally posted by Sue Sponte

Ed: The good of Christianity far outweighs the evil committed in the name of Christianity, as mentioned above.

Sue: Please explain. Historically this is a tough sell, unless you equate all socially acceptable or redeeming behavior of Christians to their faith.

For the same reasons that Christians reject bad behavior as reflective of Christianity, why should you presume otherwise for good behavior? This begs the question of whether the faith is causing the behavior, or whether it is merely reflective of the fact that most people, believers and non-believers, do not purposely engage in socially unacceptable behavior.


No, sociological studies have shown (like the Harvard study I cited in an earlier post) that regular churchgoers are less likely to engage in antisocial behavior, and non church goers are more likely to engage in criminal behavior.


Quote:
Sue: And how does one choose the Bible as having the "right" view on morality before deciding to follow the moral principles one thinks the Bible relates? Absent some independent ability to judge for oneself what is right and wrong, how can you believe that you have chosen a text that promotes admirable, rather than reprehensible, morality concepts?


I remain interested in a response to this query.
See my response to your earlier post above.
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Old 02-22-2003, 10:00 PM   #540
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless
[B]
Ed: No, the concept of original sin is based on representative justice. Like a lawyer representing you in a court case. Adam and Eve were chosen by God to be our representatives for a one time case, your parents and the Amalekite parents were not chosen as the children's representatives.

jtb: So, if my lawyer commits a crime, I can be punished for it?

Ed, you have NO IDEA what "justice" is and how it works. The punishment of others for the crimes of Adam and Eve CANNOT be "justice".
No, but if your lawyer fails the case then you are liable for punishment. No, they are punished for their own sins not what Adam and Eve did. But what Adam and Eve did caused all humans afterwards to have a desire to disobey God and reject him.

Quote:
jtb: Justice isn't free will. Justice is an output determined entirely by the processing of inputs. Processing of evidence is what determines guilt or innocence.

Ed: But the computer is also limited by the program that it runs on. The weighing of evidence requires a free will. An inflexible output from a computer program can hardly handle situations that its computer program was not written for. The human mind with a free will is much more flexible than computer programs.

jtb: You are now confusing intelligence with "free will". The ability to cope with a wide range of scenarios is intelligence. But if there is only one "just" solution to any moral issue, then the choice of that solution MUST be determined solely by the FACTS of the case. This has nothing to do with "free will". There must be NO freedom to choose otherwise.

A computer would make an ideal judge, if its program is sophisticated enough to process all the relevant facts of the case.
But a computer would always be limited by its program. Humans are not limited in such a way. Only humans can freely react to novel situations.

Quote:
jtb: All of these involve the processing of inputs to determine an output. They differ only in the weighting given to the various factors during processing.

Ed: Exactly. The pre-weighing of the various factors in the program limit the ability of a computer to truly have a free will.

jtb: Irrelevant. We were discussing JUSTICE.
No, we were also discussing such things as science and moral choices.

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jtb: How can I "demonstrate incompetence" when you're willing to invent any number of imaginary problems that God can't handle?

Ed: What imaginary problems did I invent?

jtb: "Spiritual DNA", for starters.
That was just an analogy for man's problem of always desiring to disobey and reject the true God. There may or man not be actual spiritual DNA but there appears to be something with similar characteristics of such a thing.

Quote:
jtb: The Bible says WHY they were killed. So the Bible is lying, because it doesn't agree with Ed. Gotcha.

Ed: No, see my other posts about using reasoning and the historical context and our knowledege of God.

jtb: And see all of OUR other posts explaining why this is bullshit.

You are hallucinating again, Ed. You apparently live in a fantasy world in which you actually have valid arguments.
No, all of your attempts to refute my arguments on this subject are just superficial and exhibit tunnelvision to the overall context of the scriptures. The story of the Amelakites is just one story within a bigger story.

Quote:
jtb: The Nazis were primarily Christians. They were 50% Lutheran, 35% Catholic. That makes them at least 85% Christian.

Ed: No, see above and next time read the reference. The few that did claim to be christians were influenced by the overwhelming liberal theology of the Lutheran church of the time. They wholeheartedly accepted Wellhausen's theories and no longer believed in the authority and inerrancy of the scriptures, therefore no longer accepted moral absolutes. Read "Twisted Cross" by Doris Bergen.

jtb: Hardly ANY Christians believe in the "inerrancy of the scriptures", Ed! This is NOT a core Christian doctrine! For several centuries now, only a handful of fundie nutcases still (mistakenly) believe the Bible to be "inerrant".
No, this was the historic teaching of the majority of Christianity for at least 1800 years. Only in the last 200 years have liberal theologians rejected this core doctrine. Beginning with primarily Wellhausen as I stated above.

This is the end of part I of my response.
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