Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
09-09-2002, 05:57 PM | #61 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2002
Location: Overland Park, Kansas
Posts: 1,336
|
Greetings:
And yet, subjectivism leaves one no way to guage 'improvement', not even in one's own behaviour. Even to claim that one is 'better than the average' is to advocate some sort of standard. So, to promote any action as beneficial--which even the subjectivists here do--seems to require some sort of standard for comparison. Unless improvement really isn't the subjectivist's goal... Keith. [ September 09, 2002: Message edited by: Keith Russell ]</p> |
09-09-2002, 06:39 PM | #62 | |
Senior Member
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: Southern US
Posts: 817
|
Quote:
My philosophical moral system is based on secular humanism. Regards, Sojourner |
|
09-09-2002, 06:53 PM | #63 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2002
Location: Overland Park, Kansas
Posts: 1,336
|
Sojourner:
I was responding to the comment made in several of the above posts that no moral absolutist had yet presented a valid case for moral absolutes. I was addressing the moral subjectivists... Keith. |
09-10-2002, 12:37 PM | #64 |
Senior Member
Join Date: Jul 2002
Location: Gloucester Co., NJ, USA
Posts: 607
|
Anyone know what happened to luvluv?
|
09-10-2002, 03:27 PM | #65 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: Indianapolis area
Posts: 3,468
|
Keith Russell,
And yet, subjectivism leaves one no way to guage 'improvement', not even in one's own behaviour. I don't see why not. Does my current behavior better serve the fulfillment of my values than my behavior of a year ago? If so, then I have improved. If not, then I haven't. Even to claim that one is 'better than the average' is to advocate some sort of standard. I would say that a general assertion that one is "better than average" is meaningless unless a particular standard of measurement is indicated. Given that we can specify such a standard whenever we make value judgements, I'm not sure what your contention is. Certainly, a subjectivist will not declare that the standard (s)he has indicated is the only vald standard, as an absolutist might, but that does not change the fact that (s)he can choose a standard, and judge by it. Furthur, I would claim that the subjectivst enjoys a much greater degree of flexibility, as (s)he can choose appropriate standards for each individual judgement to be made, rather than adopting a single Universal standard of judgement. So, to promote any action as beneficial--which even the subjectivists here do--seems to require some sort of standard for comparison. Of course. The point, however, is that the subjectivist is free to use the standard that reflects his or her own values. Unless improvement really isn't the subjectivist's goal... I'm not sure what to make of this. In the sense that most subjectivists would prefer to see more of their values fulfilled than less, improvement is a goal, but I'm not sure that this is the sense in which you mean it. |
09-11-2002, 04:39 PM | #66 | ||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: India
Posts: 6,977
|
Luvluv, you wrote:
Quote:
Quote:
Incidentally monogamy is not an absolute value either. Hindu society practiced monogamy, polygamy and polyandry --- the latter two is considered fully as moral as monogamy. But monogamy was forcibly imposed by the State for the sake of domestic peace and simplifying legal tangles. That is practical morality. However both Muslims and Christian missionaries (Muslims more so) go into hysterics at the thought of polyandry calling Draupadi the epic heroine with 5 husbands immoral, but no devout Hindu feels she is immoral even though he himself would be shocked if his daughter wants to emulate Draupadi. Quote:
Quote:
Besides the Aztecs did not recognize it as wrong, basically because they sacrificed slaves and war-captives more than their own people. I understand you are trying to say that some crimes are recognized everywhere as wrong. But actually, that is a matter of social survival. Let us say that rape is recognized as a crime by every society. But is it really because of some moral code alone? In OT, rape was not a human-rights violation, but a violation of property rights more like ; that is why if the girl was a virgin the rapist had to marry her --- no one would take damaged goods. Similarly in Koran, a man who commits adultery with another man's wife/property is punished, but he can rape as many of his slave-girls with Allah's permission, because they are his legal property. In modern society we allow women to have lovers on the grounds her body is her own and she has the right to choose to do what she likes with it, while in Islamic countries they still kill women for it, even for being raped. |
||||
09-12-2002, 04:22 PM | #67 | |
Senior Member
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: Southern US
Posts: 817
|
Quote:
My post was more appropriate to Luvluv. Sojourner |
|
09-12-2002, 04:24 PM | #68 | |
Senior Member
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: Southern US
Posts: 817
|
Quote:
Sojourner [ September 12, 2002: Message edited by: Sojourner553 ]</p> |
|
09-14-2002, 09:37 PM | #69 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: India
Posts: 6,977
|
Hi Sojourner,
not a practising Hindu in the religious sense.A Hindu in the cultural sense though --- and yes,there are many atheist Hindus hanging around in India. |
09-15-2002, 01:55 PM | #70 | |
Senior Member
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: Southern US
Posts: 817
|
Quote:
Sojourner |
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|