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Old 05-10-2002, 09:28 AM   #181
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anonymousj:Adrian Selby, Concerning the issue of my definition of 'God', or a clarification of my concept of God, will it do to say that when talking about God I am talking about the entity that spoke to Lot from the whirlwind, the entity that helped Moses, the entity whose son is Jesus Christ, etc.(as these events/phenomena are documented in scripture). I think that should make it clear who/what I am talking about when I use the ord 'God'.
They're all different gods with varying attributes. You have a tyrannical, jealous, limited, war-mongering Jehovah and a remorseful "Father" with a penchant for theological suicide. How do you know they are the same God, notwithstanding a species of faith that amounts to sheer gullibility? How do you determine that the modern Jewish version of god is incorrect and that the christian version isn't?

Your answer blows and is susceptible to further questions.

Cheers!
~WiGGiN~
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Old 05-10-2002, 09:47 AM   #182
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Trollnonymousj,

Sorry if this has been covered before, but I am new to the thread. I will go back an read the previous discussion, but would like to get started.

Your argument looks valid:

Argument G: A proof that God exists.

1. If something exists, then God exists.

2. Something exists.
----
3. God exists.

So, if the premises are true, the conclusion follows. Now you must show that the premises are true. Can you do that?
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Old 05-10-2002, 10:00 AM   #183
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sir drinks-a-lot,

I will respond to your question when you have provided a satisfactory defence of why you have addressed me as 'trollnonymous'.

cheers,

anonymousj
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Old 05-10-2002, 10:10 AM   #184
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1. If something exists, then Anonymousj is Trollnonymouj.
2. Something exists.
3. Anonymousj is Trollnonymoj.
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Old 05-10-2002, 10:12 AM   #185
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oops, Trollnonymous
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Old 05-10-2002, 10:19 AM   #186
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I follow these threads but the reason I don't post is because I can't type worth a crap.

Thats " Trollnonymousj".

I wish Anonymousj would answer Koy's argument, but he seems unable to.
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Old 05-10-2002, 10:22 AM   #187
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Quote:
Originally posted by anonymousj:
<strong>sir drinks-a-lot,

I will respond to your question when you have provided a satisfactory defence of why you have addressed me as 'trollnonymous'.

cheers,

anonymousj</strong>
Because I believe you are a specimen of Forumallicatus Trollusca.
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Old 05-10-2002, 10:25 AM   #188
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Sorry anonymousj, but what entity is that? Only Lot thought he heard voices in a whirlwind, but wind can sometimes sound strange. Jesus wasn't a miracle birth so much as Mary not wanting to tell Joseph she'd slept around and therefore used his stupidity against him.

Seriously though, you refer to an entity. But how can I get from the fact that you say God is an entity that the Bible is about to the soundness of your first premise. Can I infer that because it says in the Bible God created the world, that this would explain why, if something exists, God exists?

Adrian
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Old 05-10-2002, 10:34 AM   #189
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Trollnonymous,

Actually, I think Autonomon hit the nail on the head on the first page of this thread with this post:

Your argument follows the syllogic:

B -&gt; A
B
A
This can be reversed in interesting ways, for example:
B -&gt; ~A
B
~A

You countered quickly, but I think you may have misread his post. He has issues with your fisrt premise, not your second.
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Old 05-10-2002, 01:22 PM   #190
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HRG:
Quote:
The truth table for "A =&gt; B" is simple (T = true, F = false):

T =&gt; T: true
F =&gt; T: true
T =&gt; F: false
F =&gt; F: true

Thus "If the moon is made of green cheese, then 1+1=2" is a true statement.
In other words, for "A =&gt; B" to be a true generalization rather than a true observation, it should be impossible for "T =&gt; F."
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