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06-28-2003, 07:20 PM | #31 | ||||||||||||
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The view is something like this: Prior to the space-time universe, God existed. But if God existed prior to time then he cannot be a part of time. Hence, God is timeless. Some argue that God may participate in a sort of proto-time prior to the universe. Philosopher William Lane Craig believes that God can exist in a state of tranquility that is undisturbed by anything until he actually creates the universe. Also, it is important to mention, that the existence of time requires the succession of events. If only God exists and is left alone to his simultaneous thoughts, there is no opportunity to conceive of time. But if God creates something that did not exist then there is a definite succession of events ensuing. Therefore, God then enters into time at the moment of creation. Quote:
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If you are willing to argue whether or not these assumptions should belong in reality or not, we could start a seperate thread on that. |
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06-28-2003, 11:02 PM | #32 | |||||||||||||||||||||
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- IF the universe had a beginning ... Quote:
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- IF the universe had a beginning, then certain stuff follows; - but if it didn't have a beginning, then that same stuff - doesn't necessarily follow. Quote:
- 2. Therefore, IF the universe began, then it had a cause. Quote:
- 2. IF the universe began, - 3. Then the universe had a cause. Quote:
- 1. Things that begin have causes, and - 2. The universe began, - 3. Therefore, the universe had a cause. Quote:
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- and IF things that begin have causes, Quote:
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And if we are abandoning the obvious rule about causes precede effects, why are we retaining the rule about things needing causes? Isn't that an arbitrary choice? Ah, that's right, you're saying: - IF things need causes ... Proceed. Quote:
- IF things need causes, and - IF causes are entities ... Is that what you're saying, or did I miss a move? Quote:
Not to mention the serious question of whether it means anything at all. I'm not going to call it gibberish or a non-sequitur, but I am calling the problem to your attention so you can clarify, distinguishing it from both gibberish and non-sequiturs. Quote:
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I'm going to start again. The question is, as I understand it, "Where did everything come from." If you weren't addressing that question, if you were only trying to show that some things have causes, well everybody already knows that. If you are going to divide existence into "god" and "the rest of existence," then you need a logical reason for that division. You won't be persuasive if the same logic will let me arbitrarily divide existence into say, a sea otter and the-rest-of-existence, and thereby "prove" that the sea otter created everything else. Quote:
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You haven't "establishe[d] the possibility of God existing," because we always knew that. You undertook (correct me if I'm wrong) to show that the first cause argument is logical rather than arbitrary, that it provides a reason to believe there is a god. If you can actually do that, we want to see how. crc |
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06-29-2003, 04:22 AM | #33 | |
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06-29-2003, 05:47 AM | #34 | ||||||||||||||
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So, all entities are causes of 'something' in a sense. Some entities are causes in the sense explained above. Some causes are not entities (you could maybe think of some counterexample). Quote:
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And I'm assuming that when you say 'anywhere', your maybe assuming that a necessary condition for existence is that one must be physical. I don't believe this is true either. As I said above, the Platonic Forms that supposedly served as the archetypes for every particular thing in this universe do not occupy any spatial or temporal areas. . Moreover, numbers exist in some way but they do not occupy any spatial or temporal areas. Quote:
In order to avoid invalid presuppositions, you have to go to the premises of the argument (since the argument is valid) and either prove that the premises are false, or that their contradictories are more plausible. Quote:
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Thank you for your helpful comments in 'hopefully' clarifying my position. |
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06-29-2003, 06:33 AM | #35 | |
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This is a formally unresolvable question, for the reasons explained in Jim Still's essay (which you really ought to read) The Mental Discomfort of “Why?” The theist claims that God is the one true eternal as a matter of faith, and similarly dismisses questions of the origin of God as violations of his faith. You can't argue these matters with theists as to even consider such an argument violates the faith that the theist has committed to uphold. But there is no logical (philosophical or otherwise) reason for refusing to ask the question of "why does God exist?" It is part of the peculiar nature of "limiting questions" that there cannot be any terminus to such an inquiry, as is clearly demonstrated in Jim Still's essay. To ask such a question is to embark upon an endless journey; a journey which can be abandoned only as a matter of faith, which of course cannot be justified as a matter of sense. == Bill |
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06-29-2003, 07:22 AM | #36 | |
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This is the very core of the issue. All metaphysical arguments are contingent on a certain set of assumptions. Until those assumptions are shown by evidence to be true, or at least are established as probably true, the conclusions are meaningless. All first cause arguments rest on assumptions that we have no compelling reason to accept. It is not that the evidence is weak or ambguous; it is that the evidence is nonexistent. If there is no evidence to support them, one ought not accept the premises. If one does not accept the premises, the argument has no persuasive merit, regardless of its logical consistency. There is a big difference between saying that it is logically possible that a creator god created the universe and saying that you can prove that a creator god created the universe. The first statement is obviously true, but it is the second statement that actaully asserts something non-trivial, and which creator god proponents make. |
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06-29-2003, 09:52 AM | #37 | |
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crc |
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06-30-2003, 10:18 AM | #38 | ||||
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fishbulb,
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I don't know what you mean by 'verified' or 'investigated'? If by them you mean accumulated rational support for, then I would disagree. Of course, this has yet to be brought up. If you want to start discussing the truth-value of one of the premises then I'd be obliged. Of course, the 'whole arguement' you speak of is derived from the hypothetical truth-value that the Kalam Argument would exihibit if valid and sound. So, I admit that it's soundness might be up for grabs, since we haven't discussed that yet. But if we start from the hypothetical soundness of Kalam, since it's valid (wiploc disagrees), then my argument about the nature of the cause seems to be substantiated. The conclusions are definitely valid, but, as you say, we still don't know if one can justifiably apply those conclusions to the real world. Quote:
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The rest of your post kind of repeats itself, so I'll stop here. Would you like to discuss the truth value of Premise 1, 2, or 3. 1. Whatever begins to exist has a cause. 2. The universe began to exist. 3. Therefore, the universe has a cause. Thanks for you comments. |
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06-30-2003, 10:19 AM | #39 |
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wiploc,
While fishbulb and I discuss it's soundness, we could discuss it's validity. What part of the Kalam argument to you find makes an invalid, logically fallacious move? |
06-30-2003, 11:07 AM | #40 | |
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