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12-11-2002, 03:33 PM | #31 | |||
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12-11-2002, 04:20 PM | #32 | |
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12-11-2002, 08:06 PM | #33 |
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Homosexuality was discussed, if summarily, in the book <Genome>. It seems that there is a correlation with birth order and homosexuality, and although this hardly explains it, it offered an interesting look at what can go on.
Apparently, successive male fetuses can be allergenic to the mother. The resulting chemical warfare can affect the "masculinization" of the brain. Is this genetic? In part, indirectly, yes. It is physiological change as a result of the Y chromosone. A good read, Genome, indeed. |
12-12-2002, 04:37 AM | #34 | |
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12-12-2002, 06:19 AM | #35 | |
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While I think Freud had it all wrong, I think it's a no-brainer that the influence of parents and siblings, as well as those who associate closely with a child during his upbringing--friends, classmates, neighbors, teachers and other authority figures, etc.--have a strong influence on that child's adult personality traits, up to and including sexual orientation. Most people don't "choose" to be shy, or talkative, or impulsive, or self-centered, either. The problem is that there are so many different factors, both genetic and non-genetic, that go into a person's personality and that interact in a complex way that differs for each and ever child, that it's probably impossible to dissect out one or another as being primarily responsible for a particular character trait. [ December 12, 2002: Message edited by: MrDarwin ]</p> |
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12-12-2002, 10:48 AM | #36 | ||||||
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I'm sure you're aware of this, but for the sake of others reading this, there's something I want to emphasize. Genes do not cause disease. Defective alleles may lead to disease, sometimes with certainty, sometimes with an incidence dependent on environment. In this case, we are discussing homosexuality, which is not a disease at all. Disease models do not apply. I would also say that Mendel and Morgan do not apply. Part of the problem here is that people have been trying hard to fit disease and relatively simple genetic models to patterns of behavior for which they are simply not appropriate. Quote:
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You are also asking for a paper that reaches a negative conclusion. Have you ever heard of the file drawer effect? It's extremely difficult to publish such a thing. I was privy to a very long-running series of knock-out experiments in Drosophila neurogenetics, and it was rather enlightening and mostly unpublishable. Gene after gene that had specific and interesting patterns of expression in the developing and adult nervous system was mutated, and mutant gene after mutant gene failed to have any perceptible effect. Only when a gene knockout did something interesting was any attempt made to publish it. Quote:
You are also treading on dangerous ground. These are 'broken' fruit flies -- they have gross pleiotropic defects that produce severely aberrant behavior in the affected individuals. I would say that there is another reason that they do not and cannot explain human homosexuality: they are invalid models. Gay people are not damaged goods, they merely express a behavior that is nearer one end of the range we see in all of us. The pattern that anatomists like Simon Le Vay have been claiming to see (which I find a bit shaky, too) is that male homosexual brains have some organizational features which are normally sexually dimorphic, but that resemble most those found in women. Any genetic explanation is going to have to somehow encompass the fact that these same behaviors are common in 50% of the population, and are clearly not the product of gross mutations of the kind seen in flies. So yeah, the bottom line is that these mutations in flies have absolutely no relationship to the causes of homosexuality in humans. They might represent a dim beginning to studying the influences of a genetic contribution to behavior in general, but they have little explanatory power now. There's another conceptual reason why these attempts are misleading. They presuppose a relatively simple one-to-one or small-number-to-one mapping of genes to traits, when it is really a many-to-many or even all-to-all mapping. The analogy I like to make to my classes is that of a Fourier transform of an image. The fft power spectrum is a rendering of the image in the spatial frequency domain, and you can easily go back and forth between the two. What you can't do is point to a spot in the frequency domain and assign it to a spot in the spatial domain -- it doesn't work that way. A point in the power spectrum represents that magnitude of a particular frequency across the whole of the spatial image. Blot out that point, and when you transform back you will sometimes see only a very subtle effect, and sometimes particular features (which use that spatial frequency component heavily) are strongly modified -- but it is still an error in understanding to say that one point in one domain has a causal relationship to one point in the other. The analogy breaks down in one regard that makes my argument even stronger, though. The fourier transform uses a fixed function to generate the image from a power spectrum. The analogous process for the gene is called development, and it is more variable and contingent on a changing external state. That makes it even harder to translate the genomic state to the phenotypic one in any simple way. Anyway, it's an analogy that seems to help a lot of math & engineering & comp sci majors grasp the idea -- think of the genome as a power spectrum, development as a kind of sloppy fourier function, and the organism as the resultant image. Most of the biologists go "huh?", but that just tells you that we ought to require more math of our biologists. Quote:
It's sad that people still try. It's appealing to be able to reduce complex differences to simple genetic causes: "oh, he's that way because he has Xq28". Really, I see it as very similar to the way people like to reduce complex events to "god willed it". Comprehensibility, even false comprehensibility, is comforting. But we should at least try to be more skeptical about it. |
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12-12-2002, 12:44 PM | #37 | ||
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The point of contention is not whether or not we can explain interindividual differences in behavior on the basis of genes alone -- everyone here agrees that you cannot-- the point of contention is whether we can explain interindividual differences in behavior without any recourse to genetics, e.g. solely in terms of environmental influences such as parenting. Quote:
[ December 12, 2002: Message edited by: ps418 ]</p> |
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12-12-2002, 12:52 PM | #38 | ||
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What you've just said is pretty much meaningless. Quote:
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12-12-2002, 01:21 PM | #39 | |
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You say that we have to explain differences in behavior without any recourse to genetic differences. Thank you for a clear statement of what you believe. Now, do you apply this rule to humans only? And do you apply it to all human behaviors? To take some examples, can we explain interindividual differences in obsessive/compulsive behavior solely in terms of "society" and "culture"? What about paranoid schizophrenia, or bulimia, or anorexia, or hyperactivity? Can we explain interindividual variability for these traits solely in terms of "society" and "culture"? And what about cognitive ability? Can we also explain interindividual difference in cognitive ability solely in terms of "society" and "culture"? Maybe we can test the explanatory sufficiency of "society" and "culture" using some concrete examples? [ December 12, 2002: Message edited by: ps418 ] [ December 12, 2002: Message edited by: ps418 ]</p> |
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12-12-2002, 01:30 PM | #40 | ||
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[ December 12, 2002: Message edited by: ps418 ]</p> |
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