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Old 01-12-2003, 05:37 AM   #21
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Paul's many obviously metaphorical usages make it clear he is talking spiritually. And Paul DOES explain his views at great length - much of his writing can be seen as an explanation of his views of Christ.

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He explains his overall theology and the signifigance of the death of Christ, but he never explains the symbolism of the cross.
We can't know with absolute certainty why Paul chose to equate "hanging on a tree" with crucifixion, when other Christian writers apparently didn't. However, the power, meaning, and significance of the image is pretty obvious. As the secular authorities crucify people here on Earth, Jesus was crucified by the heavenly powers and authorities. Drawing that connection paints an undeniably powerful picture, and Paul undoubtedly knew it. He was a very good, effective, persuasive writer (and probably a good speaker as well). That's why we know a little more about him, and have more examples of his writings, than his contemporaries.
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This message is brought by Paul, and it is ABOUT Iesous Christos, who is "in" all of us - clearly a spiritual Jesus.
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This is all part of orthodox Christian theology. We all believe that Jesus is spiritual NOW, after his crucifixion. This does not establish that Jesus was not a physical being before the ressurection. It is and was common parlance to talk of accepting Christ and allowing him to live in you. I say this all the time myself, but I believe Christ had a physical, human incarnation. This falls prey to what undoes most of your arguments, you end up having to read into Paul's writing a much more literal interpretation than he was intending. Part of the reason that much of this sounds so baseless to me is that I live in a Christian community where we talk like this (Jesus is in you) all the time, and at no time do we mean that Jesus is ONLY a spiritual being.
You are really convinced that the "orthodox" Christianity you practice today, an orthodox theology that was arrived at only after three or four centuries, many councils, many angry discussions, and many imprisonments and executions, is the same Christianity Paul believed in. And you derisively dismiss all attempts to explain Paul's first-century worldview--in fact, you seem to regard Paul's worldview itself (which he did hold, and which was as real to him as your worldview is to you, whether you like it or not) as some sort of silly Platonic fantasy. You do not understand Paul, you apparently do not wish to, yet you think you know what his intentions were! Amazing.

I wonder why Paul repeated that Christological hymn in Philippians if he thought Jesus had recently lived on Earth. After all, it says Jesus didn't get the name Jesus until after God raised him.
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But it is only YOU who equates crucifixion with ONLY earthly Roman authority - Paul makes no such equation, he does not attribute the crucifixion to the Romans, but to the powers of the realm above ours.
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My point is that Paul wouldn't need to! No one living in Palestine at that time would need a refresher course on the purposes of the cross! It would have the symbol of Roman authority on it unless some other meaning was given to them for it. Go to a professor of history or religion and ask him what he thinks the cross stands for. The first two things out of his mouth will be Christianity and the Roman empire.

The only way this could go on unexplained is if his audiences already understood the metaphor of the cross. There is only one source for the metaphor that makes sense: the death of Jesus Christ on the cross. Unless you can think of another...
OK, let's allow the idea that Paul wouldn't need to mention Roman participation in Jesus' crucifixion, because everyone would know the Roman's crucified him--they were the only ones with the authority to crucify people. This doesn't change the fact that the rulers Paul refers to are not the Romans. Not only does Paul's use of the phrase "rulers of this 'age'" give away his meaning (not that he was hiding it in any way--since this was a common way of referring to the demonic powers and authorities in the heavens, he might as well have been shouting it from the rooftops), but once again, you are putting a little box around this passage and refusing to look at in the context of all the other things Paul wrote.

Would a man who holds Rome complicit in the murder of Jesus write, (Romans 13:3-4, in a general defense of the secular authority): "Rulers hold no terrors for them who do right . . . (the ruler) is the minister of God for your own good." ?

But even more importantly, why does Paul write (CORRECTION. My mistake. Paul probably didn't write Ephesians. However, this point is still valid because in order to get the most complete and accurate picture possible of the beliefs of Paul and his contemporaries, we have to consider all the letters.) in Ephesians 3:9-10, ". . . the application of this mystery which has been hidden for long ages in God the creator of the universe, so that through the church the wisdom of God might be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavens, in accordance with his eternal purpose which he carried out in Christ Jesus our Lord."

No question what he's talking about here, is there? But of course, he must be talking about something else in Corinthians.
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God didn't - the demons above did.
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Again, this reinforces my point. If Christ is the sacrifice for our sins, in much the same way that lambs were the sacrifice for the sins of the ancient Hebrews, wouldn't it make more SENSE for God to offer Jesus up Himself? And again, the passage you linked from Doherty admits that a conception of earthly powers is totally legitimate.
"Doherty 'admits'." Are you referring to this:

"A great amount of scholarly ink has been spilled over the meaning of "the rulers of this age" (ton archonton tou aionos toutou, verses 6 and 8). In both pagan and Jewish parlance, the word archontes could be used to refer to earthly rulers and those in authority (as in Romans 13:3). But it is also, along with several others like it, a technical term for the spirit forces, the "powers and authorities" who rule the lowest level of the heavenly world and who exercise authority over the events and fate (usually cruel) of the earth, its nations and individuals."

This qualifies as an "admission" that "a conception of earthly powers is totally legitimate" ? No, it qualifies as an admission that the word archontes could be used to refer to earthly rulers and those in authority. In no way whatsoever does Doherty suggest that this is what the word could mean in THIS particular context.

I'm not sure what you're trying to say in your second sentence. In the mythicist conception, God does offer Jesus up himself. This is no different than the historicist conception. Hebrews, interestingly, doesn't even make any mention of a "cross" or "crucifixion" or "tree," but has Jesus entering a heavenly sanctuary and being slaughtered like a lamb.
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It would be more efficient for Paul to have said that Jesus was actually crucified by Pilate in Jerusalem after a trial.
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NOT IF EVERYONE ALREADY KNEW THAT!

You have scenario 1, in which everyone knows the basics about Christ's earthly life and death on a cross, and His ressurection. Paul writes them a letter on purely theological matters, and Paul presents them with the metaphor of the cross to symbolize redemptive suffering as has already been exemplified in Christ's death.

In scenario 2, no one knows anything about Christ except that he lived and died and was reborn in some heavenly platonic realm. Paul writes the Hebrews a letter containing a reference to Jesus dying on a cross. The only previous experience the Hebrews have with the cross is that of Roman occupation and terrorism, but somehow Paul makes no attempt to explain the (potentially offensive) symbolism to them.

Which is more likely to you?
You know, luvluv, no matter how much you ridicule and dismiss Greek Platonism, it won't go away. It won't change the fact that this is the cosmology (or something very similar) in which Paul and the early Christians, not to mention other mystery cultists of the time, firmly believed. It won't change the fact that their heavenly levels and their spirit-world sacrificial acts of cosmic redemptive deities were as real to them as your beliefs are to you.

There was nothing strange or far-out to these people in believing that things that happened to folks on earth could happen to a divine being in a spiritual realm. All the Greek/Roman mystery cults believed similar things. There was no "confusion" involved either. You seem to forget that Paul had VISITED these churches personally and expounded his doctrine of "Christ crucified" to them already, and it makes perfect sense that he, an exceptionally persuasive writer (and probably speaker as well) would use the cross and crucifixion to impart vividness and immediacy to the notion of Christ "hanging on a tree," even if the idea didn't occur to other Christian writers.

Also, you have forgotten that the Christians did indeed "know" a great deal about Christ beyond his life, death, and resurrection. He had been revealed to them through the Scriptures, which apostles like Paul had been given the ability to interpret.

By the way, I checked Hebrews and can't find any reference to Jesus dying on a cross. Plus, Paul didn't write Hebrews. Did you mean to refer to some other letter?
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NOT ONE single other Christian writing of the first century ever even uses the word "cross" - not Hebrews, James, Jude, 1 John, 1 Peter, Clement, Didakhe.
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It's not surprising given the nature of the letters you are citing! Jude, 1 John, and 1 Peter were all very, very short epistles written to personal acquaintances, generally about pressing business. It is hardly surprising that the word cross was never used when the subject never came up! You are simply reading more into these texts than you have any earthly right to. It is hard to hold your position without an active imagination to fill in the blanks.
It is hard to imagine a person whipping off a short personal letter which mentions Jesus' sacrifice in an oblique, cryptic manner instead of just saying something like "when they put him on the cross" or "when they crucified him" or "when they beat and whipped and tortured him" instead of going into this "hanging on a tree" business and referencing Scripture.

And of course, everyone knew that detail, that the Romans were short a cross that day so they had to chop down a tree and make do. (I bet they knew it was a dogwood tree too. ) Everyone remembers or knows this tiny, unimportant detail, and a couple of Christian writers go out of their way to refer to it in their letters by saying Jesus was "hanged on a tree," but nobody bothers to mention other neat little details, like, um, Mary, Joseph, Judas, Pilate, sponges soaked in vinegar, crowns of thorns, spears poking in sides, lots cast for garments, earthquakes, eclipses, veils ripping in the Temple, dead people rising from their graves, etc., etc., etc.
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It[The Cross] didn't [become a common Christian metaphor].
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It did. I'm not talking about jewlery or coats of arms or paintings. I am talking about Christian concepts like the crucifixion of the flesh. These have been around for as long as Paul.
It was hardly "common." Other Christian writers of the period refer to Jesus' sacrifice without ever mentioning a cross or crucifixion. 1 Peter refers to "hanging on a tree." Hebrews talks as if Jesus entered a sanctuary, a heavenly counterpart of the sanctuary in the Temple, and was slaughtered like a lamb on the altar.
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The Jews considered it blasphemy to even SAY the Name of God - to call a human being God or Son of God would have been the vilest blasphemy to the Jews - yet no mention of this taboo is found, no mention of Paul arguing against this taboo.
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I don't understand your point. Under both our views, the concept of Jesus as being part of the Godhead is part and parcel with being a Christian, and so would require very little explanation. (However, almost all of Romans and Hebrews is written in an attempt to explain Jesus sacrifice to the world.) But under your view, a cross is a totally alien concept to Christianity. There is no natural place for it to enter into the picture.
I don't know where you get "under your (Iason's) view, a cross is a totally alien concept to Christianity" from his comment, but never mind. Let me put the comment differently. The idea that God would have contact with corrupt human flesh, or actually BECOME human, would have been vilest blasphemy to Jews, and would have required a defense from Paul and other Christian writers. It was no problem for the Logos to descend to the lower parts of heaven and take on the LIKENESS of flesh, however.
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The Jews also had a strong blood taboo - yet there is no argument about the blood of the new covenant - no Jewish resistance to a cannabilism ritual - no sign that Paul ever mentioned a real cup with real blood.
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The Jews had been slaughtering lambs and spilling the blood on their altars for centuries. Again this, unlike a startling and, in your view, inexplicable mention of crucifixion, would not have required much of an explanation. Particularly for a Jew.
JEWS. DID. NOT. DRINK. BLOOD. God commanded them that they should not eat flesh of animals with the blood still in it. Iason's comment had absolutely nothing to do with spilling animal blood on the altar. Eating the flesh and drinking the blood of somone who had been an actual human being--even if he was now spiritual--would have been unthinkable.
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the issue of the cross and its importance as a Christian symbol : you may be surprised to learn that the cross was not the symbol for Christ until the 8th century IIRC - early Christians did NOT use the cross as their main symbol at all - that came much later after centuries of religious debate (and burning at the stake those who disagreed).
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Again, I'm not talking about necklaces or T-shirts, I'm talking about spiritual concepts... like Paul's reference to being "crucified with Christ", and the Christian notion of "crucifixion of the flesh". Concepts like these are totally inexplicable according to your view.
Again you totally miss Quentin's point. If Jesus' crucifixion, on a cross, by the Romans, had been one of the central teachings of earliest Christianity, then it should have become one of their most important symbols much earlier.

luvluv, I think you've amply demonstrated that you're not really interested in learning more about the mythicist case. If you refuse to learn about and understand Paul's cosmology (and take it seriously), then there is no way you can claim to understand what he wrote.

Gregg
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Old 01-12-2003, 06:19 AM   #22
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Originally posted by luvluv
Here's a little more about the symbolism of crucifixion in ancient Rome, compiled over at Tektonics Apologetics:





You'll find the rest of this article here:

http://www.tektonics.org/nowayjose.html
Christians believed in Jesus' "shameful" suffering and sacrifice because that's exactly what Scripture said had happened to the spiritual Christ in the spiritual realm. This was the mystery hidden for ages with God in heaven. The idea of a king undergoing ritual humiliation, even a symbolic redemptive sacrifice, is an ancient one.

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In the same way, the kings of Babylon, Iran, etc., as part of the same ritual, would re-enact the death and resurrection of a god (Tammuz, Baal. etc.), a drama in which the king ritually assumed the burden of the fertility of the land and the sins of his people. Sometimes this entailed a mock death, sometimes the actual death of a poor surrogate chosen by lot, sometimes a mere ritual humiliation, as when the Babylonian high priest publicly removed the king's crown, tweaked his ears, and slapped his face. Protesting his innocence, the king would don his robe and crown again and rise to full power once more, redeeming his people in a ritual atonement in which he himself had played the role of scapegoat. Isaiah 52:13-15; 53:1-12 seems to reflect the Hebrew version of the same liturgy, which gave way after the Exile (with no king on the throne any more) to the familiar Yom Kippur ritual. Another surviving vestige of the worship of Tammuz and his divine consort Ishtar Shalmith ("the Shulamite") is the Song of Songs. Remember that Ezekiel attests explicitly the continuation of the worship of Tammuz in Jerusalem in Ezekiel 8:14.

But what is the function of the text in its present context, the announcement of glad tidings of the impending return of the Exilic community of aristocrats and priests to the Holy Land? The old text has been updated, reapplied to a new situation. As Morna Hooker (Jesus and the Servant, 1959), argues, the text as we now read it functions as part of an apologetic for the returning exiles who sought to enhance their position in the eyes of their contemporaries who had remained in the homeland all this time and had ascribed the deportation of their leaders to the leaders' sinfulness, not their own. The so-called Servant Song of Isaiah 52-53 attempts to turn the tables by insisting that it was the innocent minority (or righteous remnant) which was taken away to punishment not because of their own sins but in the place of those who actually did the sinning, the reprobate who remained behind! Thus did they think to theologize the privilege accorded them by their royal Persian patrons. We are not surprised to learn in Ezra and Nehemiah of severe tensions between the newly-returned leaders, with heir arrogant "take-charge" attitude, and the people of the land who had never left. So Isaiah 52-53 in its present context represents a secondary reinterpretation where by the returning exiles are the suffering servant of Yahve, once mistakenly blamed for their own punishment when, from their own viewpoint, they were taking it on behalf of the very upstarts who contemned them as sinners. It is they who, having suffered on behalf of sinners, will be exalted to the glory due them (in their own estimation, anyway).

Some (Ivan Engnell, Studies in Divine Kingship, 1943, followed by Helmer Ringgren, The Messiah in the Old Testament, 1956) would see Psalm 22 as part of the same royal-divine humiliation liturgy, seeing that various of the Psalms (all of which had a ritual setting in the Temple--none were private lyric poems) are written just for the king's use and that the Psalm does share Isaiah 52-53's pattern of shameful suffering giving way to final (if only implied) vindication. That may be, but I tend rather to go with Hermann Gunkel (The Psalms, 1967) and Sigmund Mowinkel (The Psalms in Israel's Worship, 1962) in seeing Psalm 22 as simply a member of the larger category of Lament Psalms. For examples, see Psalms 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 17, 25, 26, 28, 31, 35.

These were essentially scripts of suffering and prayers for vindication, pledging to return to the Temple to present a sacrificial feast to which the poor should be invited, to celebrate Yahve's deliverance. On that occasion, "a new song," one of the Thank-offering Psalms (e.g., 9, 30, 32, 33, 34), would be sung instead of the present gloomy lament. The "Everyman" character of the Lament Psalm is evident from the vagueness and symbolism with which the envisioned trials and tribulations are described: wild dogs nipping at one's heels, strong bulls and lions, rising waters up to one's neck. Fill in the blanks as appropriate. "They have pierced my hands and feet" (22:16b), cited by apologists as a reference to the nail-wounds of crucifixion, make more sense in context as bite- and claw-wounds incurred by the sufferer as he tries to fend off the wild animals snapping at him (22:16a), the symbols of his real-life dilemmas.
See http://ww.infidels.org/library/moder.../psychics.html for the full article.

Gregg
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Old 01-12-2003, 11:49 AM   #23
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<same way that lambs were the sacrifice for the sins of the ancient Hebrews>

The Passover lamb was never intended to be a sacrifice for sin, but was actually a rememberance of the deliverance from Egypt. The Day Of Atonement--in which Goats and Bulls were sacrificed or led into the Wilderness--was "For sins". Please carefully read LEVITICUS.
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