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Old 05-23-2002, 02:46 AM   #81
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Dave: once again, you are simply assuming that God does not or cannot treat mankind as a corporate entity, with Adam as the federal head (which is precisely the Christian claim). It is precisely BECAUSE God is omniscient and omnipotent that He can treat Adam's actions as truly representative of all humanity. That is to say, God knew very well that Adam's actions were indicative of the decisions that His posterity would have made, had they been in his shoes. Your childish rant fails to take into account the implications of God's omniscience.
So now you're saying that every human shares Adam's defect? Every human will disobey God in this situation, and that justifies punishment?

That makes Adam's defect a design flaw. God is experiencing the biggest hissy fit of all time because HIS home-made toys aren't as good as HE wanted them to be.

This contradicts both omnipotence (he should have made them better) and omniscience (he should have expected this). Furthermore, this argument flatly contradicts the notion that Jesus was without sin. In order to use this argument, it is necessary to assume that Jesus shares our guilt because Jesus would have stolen the Fruit also.

The fate of Jesus proves that the Biblical God punishes innocents for the crimes of others.
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No, THE UNIVERSE has no ethics. I do. Why are you being so obtuse?

Dave: the fact that you have YOUR ethics does not give me (or anyone else) a reason to adopt them. It is precisely because you do not see ethical norms as being an inherent part of reality that your ethical system collapses. You have given us, in effect, your preference only. There is no philisophical justification for one's preference over another's.
Yet again, you are having problems with the concept of "justification". I have explained WHY we have an ethical code. Evolution explains WHY ethical norms are "an inherent part of reality" (that portion of "reality" called Homo Sapiens). Ethical norms outside that social context are meaningless. Is it ethical for a comet to hit Jupiter?

Furthermore, in YOUR world, there are no "ethical norms" independent of sentient beings. What is "good" is whatever the whim of God decides. Your description of God as "good" is utterly meaningless, equivalent to saying that God is "godlike". If God decides that boiling babies in oil is good, it is good. By arguing that this would be "against God's nature", you are recognizing that there IS an ethical standard independent of God: the Euthyphro Dilemma.

Furthermore, your decision to adopt the J/C God and accompanying morality is ITSELF arbitrary. You have "presupposed" that it was the right choice.
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My argument is that what you call the "Christian" conception of God is not the BIBLICAL conception of God. It does not correspond to the God that the Hebrews wrote about in the Bible. Your interpretation of Scripture is in error.

Dave: if my interpretation is in error, that I await to be shown proof of such.
The Biblical God (specifically, the God of the Old Testament) is neither omnipotent, nor omniscient, nor omnipresent, nor omnibenevolent. I can provide scriptural examples of God's failings if you wish, but I think that justifies a separate thread in the Biblical Criticism and Archaeology forum. The "omnimax" God is not of Hebrew origin. There is a thread in BC&A discussing the <a href="http://iidb.org/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic&f=51&t=000275" target="_blank">Origin of the Omnimax God</a>.
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You said that "they are reducible to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency". This is a false statement. Saying it dosen't make it so.

Dave: I said more than that. If you want to challenge my claims, you are going to have to interact with the argumentation I originally offered, and at least try challenging my premises (be specific), or SOMETHING.
If you wish to argue that "they are reducible to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency", then you need to demonstrate that "they are reducible to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency". You keep claiming that you have already done this: you have not.
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Dave: my premise is that God's existence is the necessary precondition to knowledge. Specifically, I am addressing ethical forms of knowledge in this thread. This premise has been supported with 1. a critique of atheistic attempts to account for ethics and 2. a positive presentation of how ethical norms are grounded in God's eternal nature as perfectly just and good.
1. A critique, not a refutation. Furthermore, even a successful refutation would not establish the J/C God as "the necessary precondition to knowledge".

2. You have failed to establish that God's nature is "perfectly just and good": you have merely sought to redefine those terms to make them God-dependent. If you succeed, you lose your argument, as the terms become meaningless: "God is good" becomes tautological. You must establish that the human concepts of "good" and "justice" stem from God: our moral outrage at such issues as the punishment of innocents, or eternal puishment for finite crimes, is proof that you are wrong about that.
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Prove that God's basic nature does not change. This is a baseless assertion.

Dave: once again, His eternal nature is simply axiomatic and defenitional of who He is as God.
Again, you are arbitrarily "defining yourself correct". There is no reason to assume that God's basic nature does not change. Furthermore, the Old and New Testaments portray very different gods.
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What part of "do no harm" do you not understand? Now we're down to THREE words. Do I really have to explain why harm contradicts do no harm?

Dave: and precisely WHY should I do no harm? What is the philisophical justification for this?
Stop trying to wriggle out of your error. I have defined secular morality as "do no harm", pointed out that murder is harm, and therefore demonstrated why murder is immoral. You cannot now deny that murder is immoral in my worldview, as you previously sought to do.

Therefore your question is now "why should I behave morally?", which is a separate issue. And the answer depends on your usage of "should".
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Define "should" in this context. I have given you a comprehensive list of applications of "should" to this issue. I will not repeat it.

Dave: "should" implies ethical obligation and epistemological warrant.
WRONG. All usages of "should" (or "ought") imply a CONTEXT, nothing more. They are meaningless out of context. Should Hitler have invaded Russia? No, in the context of sound military strategy (fighting a war on multiple fronts): Yes, in the context of our own desire to see him lose. Again, should comet SL-9 have hit Jupiter?
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Unfortunately, this means that you are not speaking English. There is no dictionary definition of these terms which invokes the J/C God, or any other God. These terms DO NOT mean what you claim them to mean.

Dave: please justify your use (confusion?) of a dictionary (which one??) to establish philisophical definitions. This should be interesting...

...actually, dictionaries define words according to social lexical convention only. They were not meant to be used as philisophical standards (since language itself changes). Really, dictionaries only describe words using OTHER words - they do not provide a philisophical justification for meaning in certain words. Webster would indeed be perplexed by your misuse of dictionaries.
Yet again, you have it backwards. ALL words are defined "according to social lexical convention only". Except in the case of words invented by theologians, or given specific alternate meanings by theologians, words mean what WE THE PEOPLE declare them to mean.
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1. The contradictions between Bgood, Bjustice and Bmorality and Tgood, Tjustice and Tmorality.

2. The inconsistency of Bgood, Bjustice and Bmorality between different parts of the Bible.

3. The inability to make a consistent definition of Tgood, Tjustice and Tmorality which do not contradict the claimed properties of the omnimax God.


Dave: these are nice sweeping generalization with no substance behind them. If this is supposed to be some form of argument, you are going to have to be more specific.
Again, these issues are too big to summarize on this thread. They include issues such as the non-Biblical origin of the omnimax God, Biblical contradictions (particulary those which address moral issues, such as the inconsistency of Biblical "justice" or the practise of <a href="http://www.skepticsannotatedbible.com/contra/human_sacrifice.html" target="_blank">human sacrifice</a> by the Jews), the Euthyphro Dilemma, the Problem of Evil, and the Problem of Nonbelief.
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Dave: God cannot do what goes against His nature. Therefore, God can commit no act of injustice.
Without a God-independent definition of "injustice", this becomes: God cannot do what God cannot do. Tautological, therefore meaningless, therefore you have no basis for the concept of justice. Because you previously claimed that you DID have such a basis, your argument is therefore self-refuting.

[ May 23, 2002: Message edited by: Jack the Bodiless ]</p>
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Old 05-26-2002, 06:52 AM   #82
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It is true but irrelevant that different humans hold different values. I think you've missed a crucial distinction: when I say that human values are sufficient to "account for" ethical systems, I mean that they are sufficient to explain the existence of ethical systems, not that they provide any ultimate foundation for ethical systems, in the sense that you mean.
Dave: well, in that sense I can agree that "human values account for ethical systems." But this is not epistemic justification of any sort.

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No, my ethical system is not arbitrarily chosen. My personal ethical system is dictated by the logical consequences of my actions on the fulfillment of the values that I hold. I cannot arbitrarily decide that murder is all right, for example, because other human beings will reliably object to murder and punish me accordingly.
Dave: but how do you evaluate the "consequences" of your actions? This requires an a priori ethical system. Secondly, would murder be wrong if there were circumstances where no one would object and/or punish you?

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This is a nonissue. I'm not concerned with what set of values you "choose" (go ahead, choose not to desire living, or choose not to value the presence of the people you care for), but with the strategies that will best allow you to fulfill those values, whatever they are, and there are very good reasons to choose one strategy (say, not murdering instead of murdering) over another.
Dave: so your ethical system boils down to little more than a preference - on the level of "I like chocolate ice cream."


Philosoft
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I was making a deliberate caricature of the Christian concept of salvation which nevertheless still shows that God repeatedly overlooks violations of his so-called objective moral code.
Dave: you're going to have to do better than caricaturing. ONCE AGAIN - God does not overlook any violation of his moral code. All sin will be paid either by the sinner, or the Substitute.

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That we must believe such a thing is question begging. Show why there must be a philosophical basis for evolutionarily selected behaviors.
Dave: are you trying to advocate that we should believe in that which cannot be philosophically justified? Why should "evolution" morally compel me to do anything? Why shouldn't I rebel against evolution? After all, evolution evolved me into a rebel!

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As I have mentioned before, we are empathetic in addition to survivalistic.
Dave: what I wonder is WHY you are empathetic - given that your ethical foundation (evolution) only provides you with reason to be survivalistic. Survival of the fittest is opposed to charity of any kind.


Bill Snedden

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Of course, I have been following the thread, and your "argument" amounts to no more than your assertion that what you say is true is true. You have offered no evidence nor points of logic to reinforce your assertion.
Dave: then you fail to misunderstand the nature of a transcendental argument. I have shown how my worldview, taken presuppositionally, accounts for logic and morality. I await to hear a rebuttal of my account, and an alternative from the atheistic worldview (taken presuppositionally).

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Carl Sagan is by nature eternally and perfectly good and just. Therefore, Carl Sagan is the source of all moral value.

This "foundation" is clearly unfalsifiable without venturing outside of the presupposition. Is that any reason to consider it correct?
Dave: that presupposition can be disproved by the fact that Carl Sagan did not hold constant views of morality, philosophy, or science. The same cannot be said of God. It also tells us that morality cannot have existed before Carl Sagan was born! Perhaps morality does not exist now, since Carl is gone.

Ahhh, the futility of grounding moral absolutes in a contingent creature!

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Further, your "critiques" of "atheistic foundations" are no more than strawmen which you criticize based upon the unproven "truth" of your assertion.

Wishing doesn't make it so.
Dave: I have proven the truth of my assertion by showing how it is a necessary presupposition in order to have knowledge.

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It is quite clear (to most of us, anyway), that "morality" cannot be divorced from humanity without making a mockery of it. Ethical principles must have their basis in human nature and norms if they are to have any value to humans at all.
Dave: its "quite clear" because...&gt;?

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Even further, without gain or loss, value is impossible. Therefore, a perfect, omnipotent, immortal being cannot possibly be said to actually value anything. How is a creature without values supposed to supply us with ours?
Dave: God values things, not because he "gains" something from them, but because good things (creation, men, etc.) reflects who He is. He is like a fountain overflowing - it is through an overflow of satisfaction in Himself that God creates and redeems the world. His eternal glory is manifested in it all.


Vorador

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Is that to say that nothing God could ever do would ever be an injustice? By whos standards are you guaging God's moral superiority, here? Can you claim to know him?
Dave: indeed, God cannot commit an injustice. We are using God's own standards. I do claim to know Him through His revelation in Scripture.

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The question stands: Woud he or would he not commit genocide?

The answer: You cannot profess to know.
Dave: I can because God has revealed Himself in Scripture.


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The real question is: Would you agree with it, were he to commit such an act?
Dave: I am confident that if God were to do so, He would have just reasons.



Jack the Bodiless
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So now you're saying that every human shares Adam's defect? Every human will disobey God in this situation, and that justifies punishment?
That makes Adam's defect a design flaw. God is experiencing the biggest hissy fit of all time because HIS home-made toys aren't as good as HE wanted them to be.
Dave: its not a design flaw at all. God foreordained that the Fall would happen.

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This contradicts both omnipotence (he should have made them better) and omniscience (he should have expected this). Furthermore, this argument flatly contradicts the notion that Jesus was without sin. In order to use this argument, it is necessary to assume that Jesus shares our guilt because Jesus would have stolen the Fruit also.
Dave: Jesus was conceived of the Holy Spirit, though, not from Joseph. He did not inherit original sin from Adam.

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The fate of Jesus proves that the Biblical God punishes innocents for the crimes of others.
Dave: Jesus' WILLING sacrifice is quite different from what you have in mind.

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Yet again, you are having problems with the concept of "justification". I have explained WHY we have an ethical code. Evolution explains WHY ethical norms are "an inherent part of reality" (that portion of "reality" called Homo Sapiens). Ethical norms outside that social context are meaningless.
Dave: is it wrong for me to oppose evolution, then? How can you object, for I am merely the product of it?


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Is it ethical for a comet to hit Jupiter?
Furthermore, in YOUR world, there are no "ethical norms" independent of sentient beings. What is "good" is whatever the whim of God decides. Your description of God as "good" is utterly meaningless, equivalent to saying that God is "godlike". If God decides that boiling babies in oil is good, it is good. By arguing that this would be "against God's nature", you are recognizing that there IS an ethical standard independent of God: the Euthyphro Dilemma.
Dave: God's nature does not constitute an independent ethical standard. God's nature IS who He is. And if you want to understand what "good" is, God was kind enough to write a rather large book to give us an idea about it.

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Furthermore, your decision to adopt the J/C God and accompanying morality is ITSELF arbitrary. You have "presupposed" that it was the right choice.
Dave: I do so, not arbitrarily, but because Jesus Christ is the only coherent way TO God. He is the only One that could conceivably take away our sin and make us right with God.

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The Biblical God (specifically, the God of the Old Testament) is neither omnipotent, nor omniscient, nor omnipresent, nor omnibenevolent. I can provide scriptural examples of God's failings if you wish, but I think that justifies a separate thread in the Biblical Criticism and Archaeology forum.
Dave: a few of your best, most irrefutable examples will suffice just fine.

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If you wish to argue that "they are reducible to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency", then you need to demonstrate that "they are reducible to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency". You keep claiming that you have already done this: you have not.
Dave: I have brought up moral norms and logic (specifically induction) as examples. I have shown how God's nature as good and just accounts for moral norms. I have shown how God's providence and power accounts for order in the universe - and thus logic and induction. I have yet to see a coherent atheistic alternative.

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1. A critique, not a refutation. Furthermore, even a successful refutation would not establish the J/C God as "the necessary precondition to knowledge".
Dave: I think it was a successful critique. Thus, a refutation. I await rebuttal. Concerning Jesus Christ, no other figure would give us hope to be reconciled to God. Only Jesus Christ has died for the sins of the world, as foretold in the Scriptures.

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2. You have failed to establish that God's nature is "perfectly just and good": you have merely sought to redefine those terms to make them God-dependent. If you succeed, you lose your argument, as the terms become meaningless: "God is good" becomes tautological. You must establish that the human concepts of "good" and "justice" stem from God: our moral outrage at such issues as the punishment of innocents, or eternal puishment for finite crimes, is proof that you are wrong about that.
Dave: no, your outrage at eternal punishment is only "proof" that you are measuring God by your inadequate measuring stick. Our crimes at not "finite" in merit since they are directed against a God of infinite worth.

A tautology is not meaningless - it tells us about the foundation of knowledge. If you want more specifics, then you can find it in His revelation.

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Again, you are arbitrarily "defining yourself correct". There is no reason to assume that God's basic nature does not change. Furthermore, the Old and New Testaments portray very different gods.
Dave: I am not "defining myself as correct", I am simply arguing the Christian worldview as a whole - as a unitary presupposition. I justify my presuppositions on the basis that they, and they alone, provide a foundation on which to account for different knowledge forms.

Secondly, God is the same in the Old and New Testaments, although He certainly does work in different manners.

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Stop trying to wriggle out of your error. I have defined secular morality as "do no harm", pointed out that murder is harm, and therefore demonstrated why murder is immoral. You cannot now deny that murder is immoral in my worldview, as you previously sought to do.
Therefore your question is now "why should I behave morally?", which is a separate issue. And the answer depends on your usage of "should".
Dave: it is YOU who have truly "defined" your position into existence. Why do you assume that "harm" is bad? Is it bad under ALL circumstances?

And, YES, my question still remains - why SHOULD I adopt your system of morality - ethically and epistemologically speaking?

You need to get beyond "is" to demonstrates "should" - or else you really don't have an ethical system to speak of.

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WRONG. All usages of "should" (or "ought") imply a CONTEXT, nothing more. They are meaningless out of context. Should Hitler have invaded Russia? No, in the context of sound military strategy (fighting a war on multiple fronts): Yes, in the context of our own desire to see him lose. Again, should comet SL-9 have hit Jupiter?
Dave: and the context of this discussion is epistemological warrant.

I'm still waiting.


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Yet again, you have it backwards. ALL words are defined "according to social lexical convention only". Except in the case of words invented by theologians, or given specific alternate meanings by theologians, words mean what WE THE PEOPLE declare them to mean.
Dave: as social/lexical conventions, you are right. This still falls far short of epistemic justification.

Aren't theologians "we the people"?? What about atheistic philosophers who also must "load up" their terminology???

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Again, these issues are too big to summarize on this thread. They include issues such as the non-Biblical origin of the omnimax God,
Dave: I await even a SHRED of non-speculative evidence.

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Biblical contradictions (particulary those which address moral issues,
Dave: I'd like to hear just one or two.

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such as the inconsistency of Biblical "justice"
Dave: example?

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or the practise of human sacrifice by the Jews)
Let's see:

Gen 22:2 - God stoppped Isaac's sacrifice.

Ex. 22:29: does not talk about human sacrifice at all.

Lev. 27: talks about "devoting" men to the Lord, but not a human (blood or burnt) sacrifice.

2 Samuel 21: is referring to penal retribution.

Jg 11:29 - does not condone Jephthah's actions at all.

I Kg 13: I think that whoever jotted this one down simply glanced over the pronoun referents. The "child" is the one performing the offerings on the altar - he is not the sacrifice itself.

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the Euthyphro Dilemma,
Dave: addressed above. God's nature is the definition of goodness, justice, righteousness, etc. It is not an independent standard.

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the Problem of Evil,
Dave: God has a morally sufficient reason for ordaining the existence of sin and evil.

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and the Problem of Nonbelief.
Dave: God has foreordained the nonbelief of some.

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Without a God-independent definition of "injustice", this becomes: God cannot do what God cannot do. Tautological, therefore meaningless, therefore you have no basis for the concept of justice. Because you previously claimed that you DID have such a basis, your argument is therefore self-refuting.
Dave: once again, tautologies are not meaningless. They reveal precisely where the epistemic authority lies. To further unpack specifics (the many from the one), you must turn to the revelation of the one who is tautologically good. Fortunately, He was kind enough to provide us with the Bible.

Dave Gadbois
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Old 05-26-2002, 06:42 PM   #83
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DaveJes wrote:

<strong>ONCE AGAIN - God does not overlook any violation of his moral code. All sin will be paid either by the sinner, or the Substitute.</strong>
Substitute sinner??!! Do you actually read what you write? You do realize, do you not, that by allowing sins to be inherited you have incorporated a system whereby a single individual can receive sins exponentially, based on what his ancestors have or have not paid for themselves? By this logic, most individuals alive today should be carrying literally billions of sins.

Alas, I'm sure God is capable of arbitrarily deciding to just start over with a particular generation, no?
<img src="graemlins/banghead.gif" border="0" alt="[Bang Head]" />

<strong>
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Dave: are you trying to advocate that we should believe in that which cannot be philosophically justified?</strong>
Certainly not. Please point out where I said we must believe that all of our behaviors are selected.

<strong>
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Why should "evolution" morally compel me to do anything? Why shouldn't I rebel against evolution? After all, evolution evolved me into a rebel!</strong>
Good grief, man. You are passing Strawman Building 101 with flying colors. Whoever said all selected behaviors are consciously motivated?

<strong>
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Dave: what I wonder is WHY you are empathetic - given that your ethical foundation (evolution) only provides you with reason to be survivalistic. Survival of the fittest is opposed to charity of any kind.</strong>
You're just not going to listen, are you? Natural selection is concerned with the survival of the individual, not the individual behavior. There is no reason whatsoever that social cooperation behaviors and empathic behaviors could not be selected for, if they promoted the survival of the individual.
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Old 05-26-2002, 07:04 PM   #84
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Cool

I have the feeling that this is appropriate in this thread.

To those who would say, "Well, God's justice is not man's justice, and if he wants to punish people eternally, that's fine with me!"

...One would think if a God were trying to, oh, RELATE to human beings, he'd use terms that HUMANS understand from a human perspective...so the term justice must be understood as humans understand it, unless God is really Loki out to play tricks on us, or unless God expects us to become Gods ourselves in order to understand God...
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Old 05-26-2002, 07:18 PM   #85
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Originally posted by Kassiana:
<strong>I have the feeling that this is appropriate in this thread.

To those who would say, "Well, God's justice is not man's justice, and if he wants to punish people eternally, that's fine with me!"

...One would think if a God were trying to, oh, RELATE to human beings, he'd use terms that HUMANS understand from a human perspective...so the term justice must be understood as humans understand it, unless God is really Loki out to play tricks on us, or unless God expects us to become Gods ourselves in order to understand God...</strong>
Indeed. Furthermore, an judicially inscrutable God makes it exremely difficult to understand what is meant by "man was created in God's image."

A dichotomy:

1) Man was created to physically resemble God.

2) Man was created to resemble something about God's spirit or nature.

I'd a priori eliminate 1) from serious contention.

That leaves 2). To both hold this position and that of the judicially inscrutable God, one must assert that God purposely withheld some of the attributes of his nature during creation, namely the notion of justice. This implies that God doesn't want us to understand that his rewards and punishments are just, he wants us to take his word for it. Sounds like something a bit shady, if'n you ask me.
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Old 05-27-2002, 02:15 AM   #86
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It is precisely BECAUSE God is omniscient and omnipotent that He can treat Adam's actions as truly representative of all humanity. That is to say, God knew very well that Adam's actions were indicative of the decisions that His posterity would have made, had they been in his shoes. Your childish rant fails to take into account the implications of God's omniscience...

This contradicts both omnipotence (he should have made them better) and omniscience (he should have expected this). Furthermore, this argument flatly contradicts the notion that Jesus was without sin. In order to use this argument, it is necessary to assume that Jesus shares our guilt because Jesus would have stolen the Fruit also.

Dave: Jesus was conceived of the Holy Spirit, though, not from Joseph. He did not inherit original sin from Adam.
CONTRADICTION. You have claimed that we are being punished for what WE are (God can see that we're just as bad as Adam), then you lapse back into the notion of "inheriting" original sin from Adam!

I'd like a simple answer to a simple question, Dave. In your worldview, are we punished individually because WE are bad, or punished collectively because ADAM was bad? Because if you're going to argue that God is "just", you must jettison the doctrine of original sin. Punishment cannot be "just" if we are being punished for ADAM's sin!.
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The fate of Jesus proves that the Biblical God punishes innocents for the crimes of others.

Dave: Jesus' WILLING sacrifice is quite different from what you have in mind.
"Father, why hast thou forsaken me?" - When Jesus spoke those words, it's clear that he didn't know what was happening or why. However, a "willing" innocent victim is still an innocent victim. The point stands. God punishes innocents for the crimes of others, therefore God is not just.
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Yet again, you are having problems with the concept of "justification". I have explained WHY we have an ethical code. Evolution explains WHY ethical norms are "an inherent part of reality" (that portion of "reality" called Homo Sapiens). Ethical norms outside that social context are meaningless.

Dave: is it wrong for me to oppose evolution, then? How can you object, for I am merely the product of it?
Evolution explains WHY we have a sense of ethics. If you choose to believe evolution didn't happen, the ethics remain.
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Dave: God's nature does not constitute an independent ethical standard. God's nature IS who He is. And if you want to understand what "good" is, God was kind enough to write a rather large book to give us an idea about it.
So "good" is killing the children of your enemies? The problem here is that YOU do not understand what "good" is. The God of the Old Testament wasn't supposed to be good: he was the tribal totem war-god!
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Furthermore, your decision to adopt the J/C God and accompanying morality is ITSELF arbitrary. You have "presupposed" that it was the right choice.

Dave: I do so, not arbitrarily, but because Jesus Christ is the only coherent way TO God. He is the only One that could conceivably take away our sin and make us right with God.
No. You have arbitrarily decided to believe the Bible's claim that "Jesus Christ is the only coherent way TO God". You have arbitrarily decided to believe the Bible's claim that Jesus can "take away our sin and make us right with God".

And, if Jesus can "take away our sin", why couldn't a supposedly omnipotent God do that without the need for bloodshed?
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The Biblical God (specifically, the God of the Old Testament) is neither omnipotent, nor omniscient, nor omnipresent, nor omnibenevolent. I can provide scriptural examples of God's failings if you wish, but I think that justifies a separate thread in the Biblical Criticism and Archaeology forum.

Dave: a few of your best, most irrefutable examples will suffice just fine.
Not in this thread. I'll create a new thread to discuss this topic.

(edit: I have, it's <a href="http://iidb.org/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic&f=51&t=000284" target="_blank">The Biblical God is NOT "omnimax"</a>)

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If you wish to argue that "they are reducible to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency", then you need to demonstrate that "they are reducible to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency". You keep claiming that you have already done this: you have not.

Dave: I have brought up moral norms and logic (specifically induction) as examples. I have shown how God's nature as good and just accounts for moral norms. I have shown how God's providence and power accounts for order in the universe - and thus logic and induction. I have yet to see a coherent atheistic alternative.
Yes, you HAVE seen a coherent atheistic alternative. You won't accept that it IS coherent, but you have yet to demonstrate that it is NOT coherent. Therefore your claim to have "reduced it to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency" is false.
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1. A critique, not a refutation. Furthermore, even a successful refutation would not establish the J/C God as "the necessary precondition to knowledge".

Dave: I think it was a successful critique. Thus, a refutation. I await rebuttal. Concerning Jesus Christ, no other figure would give us hope to be reconciled to God. Only Jesus Christ has died for the sins of the world, as foretold in the Scriptures.
Your "refutation" can be summed up as follows: "In the atheistic worldview, there is no God to declare what is right and what is wrong". You have failed to establish any requirement for a God to declare this, and chosen to ignore all other perfectly valid explanations for the existence of morality independent of God. Actually, you mostly accept the validity of the explanations, but then ask why you "should" behave morally: there are many reasons why you should (your evolved empathic instincts, fear of imprisonment etc) but you choose to ignore them: according to you, "God commands it" is the ONLY reason you will accept. You have failed to explain why this is the only acceptable reason.
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2. You have failed to establish that God's nature is "perfectly just and good": you have merely sought to redefine those terms to make them God-dependent. If you succeed, you lose your argument, as the terms become meaningless: "God is good" becomes tautological. You must establish that the human concepts of "good" and "justice" stem from God: our moral outrage at such issues as the punishment of innocents, or eternal puishment for finite crimes, is proof that you are wrong about that.

Dave: no, your outrage at eternal punishment is only "proof" that you are measuring God by your inadequate measuring stick. Our crimes at not "finite" in merit since they are directed against a God of infinite worth.
But, according to you, ALL morality stems from God: without God, we cannot be moral (even if we don't recognize that God is the root of all morality): this is the substance of your claim that God is necessary for morality. Therefore we are using the measuring stick that God provided! If God was a paragon of virtue, he should be off the top of the scale: and yet the supposedly God-given standard of human morality reveals that God is vain, jealous, petty, vindictive, and prone to outbursts of extreme rage and violence.
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Again, you are arbitrarily "defining yourself correct". There is no reason to assume that God's basic nature does not change. Furthermore, the Old and New Testaments portray very different gods.

Dave: I am not "defining myself as correct", I am simply arguing the Christian worldview as a whole - as a unitary presupposition. I justify my presuppositions on the basis that they, and they alone, provide a foundation on which to account for different knowledge forms.

Secondly, God is the same in the Old and New Testaments, although He certainly does work in different manners.
You are not supporting your assertion that "they, and they alone, provide a foundation on which to account for different knowledge forms". You are merely declaring that this is so. And if you admit that God "certainly does work in different manners" in the Old and New Testaments, then what is the basis for your assertion that God does not change?
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Dave: it is YOU who have truly "defined" your position into existence. Why do you assume that "harm" is bad? Is it bad under ALL circumstances?

And, YES, my question still remains - why SHOULD I adopt your system of morality - ethically and epistemologically speaking?

You need to get beyond "is" to demonstrates "should" - or else you really don't have an ethical system to speak of.
Because you make enemies if you harm people, and this damages your own interests. Also, you are likely to experience emotional trauma due to your evolved empathic instincts and social conditioning.
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WRONG. All usages of "should" (or "ought") imply a CONTEXT, nothing more. They are meaningless out of context. Should Hitler have invaded Russia? No, in the context of sound military strategy (fighting a war on multiple fronts): Yes, in the context of our own desire to see him lose. Again, should comet SL-9 have hit Jupiter?

Dave: and the context of this discussion is epistemological warrant.

I'm still waiting.
You have still not demonstrated that any additional "warrant" is necessary. WE are still waiting.
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or the practise of human sacrifice by the Jews)

Let's see:

Gen 22:2 - God stoppped Isaac's sacrifice.

Ex. 22:29: does not talk about human sacrifice at all.

Lev. 27: talks about "devoting" men to the Lord, but not a human (blood or burnt) sacrifice.

2 Samuel 21: is referring to penal retribution.

Jg 11:29 - does not condone Jephthah's actions at all.

I Kg 13: I think that whoever jotted this one down simply glanced over the pronoun referents. The "child" is the one performing the offerings on the altar - he is not the sacrifice itself.
Gen 22:2: Yes, in the current version of the Bible.

Ex 22:29 "Thou shalt not delay to offer the first of thy ripe fruits, and of thy liquors: the firstborn of thy sons shalt thou give unto me". Yes, this is human sacrifice. The Hebrews didn't offer their firstborn sons to become priests, therefore they would be "given unto me" in the same fashion as the fruits and liquors. The Bible itself elsewhere mentions the practice of sacrificing firstborn children (to a different God): this was a custom of the Caananite peoples.

Lev 27: The entire chapter discusses various sacrifices to God, and their relative worth. Adult males are equivalent to 60 shekels of tithes: adult females, 30 shekels.

You conveniently overlooked Num.31:25-29. A little too explicit, perhaps?

2 Samuel 21: "penal retribution"? To avert a famine, they sacrificed some of Saul's grandchildren? Remind me again about God's "justice"...

Jg 11:29 - "does not condone Jephthah's actions at all". But Jephtah is portrayed as a good man, God honored his side of the bargain, Jephtah must have known that "whatsoever cometh forth of the doors of my house to meet me" would probably be human, and the priests performed the human sacrifice without any qualms (or did you forget that the priesthood had an absolute monopoly on religious rituals?).

I Kg 13: what part of "and men's bones shall be burnt upon thee" do you not understand? This is a human sacrifice of somebody.

Again, 2 Kg.23:20 is explicit, so you ignored it.
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the Euthyphro Dilemma,

Dave: addressed above. God's nature is the definition of goodness, justice, righteousness, etc. It is not an independent standard.
Therefore the statement "God is good" is meaningless, anything God does is good, and you have no moral basis for condemning anything God does. So why do you object to the notion that God punishes the innocent? Why do you object to the notion that God occasionally requires human sacrifices? What is your motive for seeking to disassociate your God from those activities?

Furthermore, I'm not just saying that the Biblical God is evil because his actions contradict "atheistic" morality: many Christians have big problems with this, and either reject the Old Testament or eventually cease to be Christians. No "atheist presupposition" is necessary.
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the Problem of Evil,

Dave: God has a morally sufficient reason for ordaining the existence of sin and evil.
And it is... ?

If you claim to have a coherent worldview, then you must provide the "morally sufficient reason".
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and the Problem of Nonbelief.

Dave: God has foreordained the nonbelief of some.
This contradicts your earlier assertion that unbelievers are "lying", and contradicts various Biblical verses.
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Dave: once again, tautologies are not meaningless. They reveal precisely where the epistemic authority lies. To further unpack specifics (the many from the one), you must turn to the revelation of the one who is tautologically good. Fortunately, He was kind enough to provide us with the Bible.
You still haven't provided any reason whatsoever to assume the Bible is the "Word of God" and all other "holy books" were written by humans.

We're still waiting.

[ May 27, 2002: Message edited by: Jack the Bodiless ]</p>
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Old 05-27-2002, 02:07 PM   #87
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Philosoft

Quote:
Substitute sinner??!! Do you actually read what you write? You do realize, do you not, that by allowing sins to be inherited you have incorporated a system whereby a single individual can receive sins exponentially, based on what his ancestors have or have not paid for themselves? By this logic, most individuals alive today should be carrying literally billions of sins.
Dave: that is not what the doctrine of Adam's federal representation entails. Romans 5:

12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned-- 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.

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quote:
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Why should "evolution" morally compel me to do anything? Why shouldn't I rebel against evolution? After all, evolution evolved me into a rebel!
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Good grief, man. You are passing Strawman Building 101 with flying colors. Whoever said all selected behaviors are consciously motivated?
Dave: what my reply demonstrates is that your appeal to evolution really provides no epistemic basis for morality. You cannot derive "rightness" or "wrongness" from evolution. Evolution just happens, and the fittest survive. Nothing more.

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You're just not going to listen, are you? Natural selection is concerned with the survival of the individual, not the individual behavior. There is no reason whatsoever that social cooperation behaviors and empathic behaviors could not be selected for, if they promoted the survival of the individual.
Dave: obviously evolution forgot to select those behaviors in bin Laden et al.

Kassiana

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...One would think if a God were trying to, oh, RELATE to human beings, he'd use terms that HUMANS understand from a human perspective...so the term justice must be understood as humans understand it, unless God is really Loki out to play tricks on us, or unless God expects us to become Gods ourselves in order to understand God...
Dave: this assumes that the (sinful) human perspective is at all an adequate ground to determine truth. This is precisely what we Christians deny. God reveals Himself to us in order that we may correct our skewed perceptions of what goodness is, what justice is, what love is, etc. And God has revealed Himself in terms that we do indeed understand in Scripture - given that human beings are still made in God's image and the fact that the Spirit enlightens His people.


Philosoft

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Indeed. Furthermore, an judicially inscrutable God makes it exremely difficult to understand what is meant by "man was created in God's image."

A dichotomy:

1) Man was created to physically resemble God.

2) Man was created to resemble something about God's spirit or nature.

I'd a priori eliminate 1) from serious contention.
Dave: because...???? The fact that both man and God are personal, conscious and self-conscious beings with emotions, goals, intentions, values, perceptions, and dominion does not matter? This proves that there is great resemblance (although I don't know where you are getting this "physical" resemblance from).

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That leaves 2). To both hold this position and that of the judicially inscrutable God, one must assert that God purposely withheld some of the attributes of his nature during creation, namely the notion of justice. This implies that God doesn't want us to understand that his rewards and punishments are just, he wants us to take his word for it. Sounds like something a bit shady, if'n you ask me.
Dave: either that, or it requires the Christian's understanding. Namely that, just after creation, man fell away from God and are now corrupted by sin - thus having a skewed notion of justice.


Jack the Bodiless
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CONTRADICTION. You have claimed that we are being punished for what WE are (God can see that we're just as bad as Adam), then you lapse back into the notion of "inheriting" original sin from Adam!
Dave: there is no contradiction between these two propositions. We inherit the stain of original sin because of our corporate solidarity with Adam.

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I'd like a simple answer to a simple question, Dave. In your worldview, are we punished individually because WE are bad, or punished collectively because ADAM was bad? Because if you're going to argue that God is "just", you must jettison the doctrine of original sin. Punishment cannot be "just" if we are being punished for ADAM's sin!.
Dave: unless, of course, Adam's sin is also our sin, as I have contended.

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"Father, why hast thou forsaken me?" - When Jesus spoke those words, it's clear that he didn't know what was happening or why. However, a "willing" innocent victim is still an innocent victim. The point stands. God punishes innocents for the crimes of others, therefore God is not just.
Dave: Jesus was the only innocent one ever punished. But that is not "injustice" since sins were being paid for (that Jesus willingly took upon Himself on our behalf). Secondly, Jesus' quote on the cross ("why...forsaken me?") is a quotation of the Psalm of the suffering servant. Jesus was identifying Himself as a suffering servant. It is not like He didn't understand what was going on ("I come to give my life as a ransom for many").

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Evolution explains WHY we have a sense of ethics. If you choose to believe evolution didn't happen, the ethics remain.
Dave: this still leaves me without an epistemic reason to adopt this system of ethics. How can you argue, morally, against ANYTHING that I do, since I can just say "well, I am the product of evolution."?

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So "good" is killing the children of your enemies? The problem here is that YOU do not understand what "good" is. The God of the Old Testament wasn't supposed to be good: he was the tribal totem war-god!
Dave: huh? If you are complaining about God's jealousy (which is evident in BOTH testaments), then I suggest you rethink your definition of good. If God really is good, and mankind has forsaken the source of goodness - then how could God NOT pour out his wrath to defend His own honor (goodness itself)??

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No. You have arbitrarily decided to believe the Bible's claim that "Jesus Christ is the only coherent way TO God". You have arbitrarily decided to believe the Bible's claim that Jesus can "take away our sin and make us right with God".
And, if Jesus can "take away our sin", why couldn't a supposedly omnipotent God do that without the need for bloodshed?
Dave: ahhh, but the answer to your question is precisely the reason why believing in the necessity of Jesus is not arbitrary. God is indeed omnipotent - but He is also just, cannot lie, and thus cannot overlook sin. He must meet sin with wrath - either in the sinner, or in the Substitute (Jesus).

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Yes, you HAVE seen a coherent atheistic alternative. You won't accept that it IS coherent, but you have yet to demonstrate that it is NOT coherent. Therefore your claim to have "reduced it to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency" is false.
Dave: I have addressed your account of ethics above. It still leaves us with no basis to challenge each other's ethical actions - since we are all the product of evolution.

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Your "refutation" can be summed up as follows: "In the atheistic worldview, there is no God to declare what is right and what is wrong". You have failed to establish any requirement for a God to declare this, and chosen to ignore all other perfectly valid explanations for the existence of morality independent of God. Actually, you mostly accept the validity of the explanations, but then ask why you "should" behave morally: there are many reasons why you should (your evolved empathic instincts, fear of imprisonment etc) but you choose to ignore them: according to you, "God commands it" is the ONLY reason you will accept. You have failed to explain why this is the only acceptable reason.
Dave: since you cannot tell me why I "should" behave morally, you have not given me an epistemic account of morality. Telling me that "its 'cause of evolution" can be used to "account" for my love of chocolate vs. vainlla ice cream - but that does not justify it as a moral norm.

Also, your appeal to "instincts" is vague. My "instincts" tell me to seek sensory pleasure at all costs to others, little more. Fear of imprisonment has never stopped any dictator. You have a long way to go in order to establish the "should" of any proposition.

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But, according to you, ALL morality stems from God: without God, we cannot be moral (even if we don't recognize that God is the root of all morality): this is the substance of your claim that God is necessary for morality. Therefore we are using the measuring stick that God provided!
Dave: indeed. That's the point.

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If God was a paragon of virtue, he should be off the top of the scale: and yet the supposedly God-given standard of human morality reveals that God is vain, jealous, petty, vindictive, and prone to outbursts of extreme rage and violence.
Dave: again, you are using your own human (thus sinful) measuring stick. You are dialoguing within your own paradigm.

Quote:
You are not supporting your assertion that "they, and they alone, provide a foundation on which to account for different knowledge forms". You are merely declaring that this is so. And if you admit that God "certainly does work in different manners" in the Old and New Testaments, then what is the basis for your assertion that God does not change?
Dave: the fact that God works in different matters does not mean that God changes - since His interactions are still based on the same fundamental attributes and His unchanging character.

Secondly, I HAVE argued that God is necessary for various knowledge forms. I have criticized atheistic accounts of morality above, and I would reiterate my positive argument: morality is accounted for because God's nature is eternally good and just. It is non-contingent. And He has created us in His image, thus giving humans a measure of worth as well as the mandate to reflect God's nature as good.

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Because you make enemies if you harm people, and this damages your own interests.
Dave: not always.

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Also, you are likely to experience emotional trauma due to your evolved empathic instincts and social conditioning.
Dave: again, not always. The last Chinese emperor who recently died lived a very long, comfortable life, quite aloof of the tyranny his regime carried out.

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You have still not demonstrated that any additional "warrant" is necessary. WE are still waiting.
Dave: if you have no warrant for your moral norms, then why should anyone adopt them, philisophically speaking. You have not epistemologically justified your position.

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Gen 22:2: Yes, in the current version of the Bible.
Dave: is there an older textual variant that would prove otherwise?

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Ex 22:29 "Thou shalt not delay to offer the first of thy ripe fruits, and of thy liquors: the firstborn of thy sons shalt thou give unto me". Yes, this is human sacrifice. The Hebrews didn't offer their firstborn sons to become priests, therefore they would be "given unto me" in the same fashion as the fruits and liquors. The Bible itself elsewhere mentions the practice of sacrificing firstborn children (to a different God): this was a custom of the Caananite peoples.
Dave: the text does not say that children are to be offered to God IN THE SAME WAY as the fruits. Nor were the fruit offerings always burned in the OT.

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Lev 27: The entire chapter discusses various sacrifices to God, and their relative worth. Adult males are equivalent to 60 shekels of tithes: adult females, 30 shekels.
Dave: sacrifices to God does not always mean a burnt or blood sacrifice.

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You conveniently overlooked Num.31:25-29. A little too explicit, perhaps?
Dave: a "tribute" is not necessarily a blood or burnt sacrifice either. Reading far too much into the text here.

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2 Samuel 21: "penal retribution"? To avert a famine, they sacrificed some of Saul's grandchildren? Remind me again about God's "justice"...
Dave: again, this is not a blood sacrifice - vengeance for the wrongs of Saul's household were in view.

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Jg 11:29 - "does not condone Jephthah's actions at all". But Jephtah is portrayed as a good man, God honored his side of the bargain, Jephtah must have known that "whatsoever cometh forth of the doors of my house to meet me" would probably be human, and the priests performed the human sacrifice without any qualms (or did you forget that the priesthood had an absolute monopoly on religious rituals?).
Dave: the fact that God grants military success does not imply an endorsement of Jephthah's promise. Nor is it inconceivable that Jephthah carried this out himself.

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I Kg 13: what part of "and men's bones shall be burnt upon thee" do you not understand? This is a human sacrifice of somebody.
Dave: if this person had bothered to look up the fulfillment of this prophecy in II Kings 23:15-16, they would know that this is not talking about some sort of ceremonial blood sacrifice. Josiah took bones of those who were ALREADY dead and burned them on the altars he was DESTROYING in order to defile them.

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Again, 2 Kg.23:20 is explicit, so you ignored it.
Dave: actually, this verse shows that Josiah did the same thing to the Samarian altars that He did at Bethel, as described above.

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Therefore the statement "God is good" is meaningless, anything God does is good, and you have no moral basis for condemning anything God does.
Dave: its not meaningless. Please defend your assumption that tautologies are meaningless. It tells us that God will always act in accordance with His nature.

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So why do you object to the notion that God punishes the innocent?
Dave: God does not punish the innocent.

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Why do you object to the notion that God occasionally requires human sacrifices?
Dave: the Bible says that God does not tolerate human sacrifices ("sacrifice" understood as being ceremonial and atoning in nature). In another sense, he calls all Christians to be "sacrifices" go God, in that we live for Him.

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What is your motive for seeking to disassociate your God from those activities?
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Furthermore, I'm not just saying that the Biblical God is evil because his actions contradict "atheistic" morality: many Christians have big problems with this, and either reject the Old Testament or eventually cease to be Christians. No "atheist presupposition" is necessary.
Dave: obviously atheistic presuppositions were coarsing through the minds of those "Christians" who had problems with God in the Old Testament. They just didn't want God to be God. They imposed their own (human, sinful) criteria onto the Old Testament God, assuming that they did not need to begin their reasoning FROM Him (a necessary Christian presupposition).

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And it is... ?
If you claim to have a coherent worldview, then you must provide the "morally sufficient reason".
Dave: I think I do know (at least part) of that reason. But I do not need to know that reason necessarily. I just need to know that it exists, and that God knows it. But whether I know it or not, my response alleviates the alleged contradiction in the POE.

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This contradicts your earlier assertion that unbelievers are "lying", and contradicts various Biblical verses.
Dave: I do believe unbelievers are lying. But this does not contradict the fact that God has foreordained that some are condemned to this self-deception.

Also, I highly doubt you can produce "various biblical verses" that contradict God's work of predestination, when it is explicitly taught in Ephesians 1, Romans 8-9, etc.

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You still haven't provided any reason whatsoever to assume the Bible is the "Word of God" and all other "holy books" were written by humans.
We're still waiting.
Dave: the proof lies in the fact that the Scriptures present us with knowledge that is necessary to come into a saving relationship with God. There is no way for man to come into a right relationship with God because of our sin - unless there is a Substitute (Jesus) to bear the wrath that our sins merit.

Dave G
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Old 05-27-2002, 11:05 PM   #88
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Quote:
Originally posted by DaveJes1979:
[QB]Philosoft



Dave: the proof lies in the fact that the Scriptures present us with knowledge that is necessary to come into a saving relationship with God. There is no way for man to come into a right relationship with God because of our sin - unless there is a Substitute (Jesus) to bear the wrath that our sins merit.
And why do you think that we need to come into a saving relationship with anyone - or that the Christian method is the correct one ? According to Muslims, confessing Allah as God and Mohammed as his Prophet is the only method of obtaining the right relationship with God. Sin in the Christian sense doesn't enter into it.

IOW, your argument reduces - as always - to "Christianity is true. Therefore Christianity is true".

HRG.
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Old 05-28-2002, 07:31 AM   #89
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Quote:
DaveJes wrote:

<strong>Dave: that is not what the doctrine of Adam's federal representation entails. Romans 5:

12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned-- 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.
</strong>

I have no idea what this is supposed to support. It certainly doesn't appear to refute my argument. I do find it interesting that one can apparently sin without repercussion as much as one's heart desires as long as there are no laws.

<strong>
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Dave: what my reply demonstrates is that your appeal to evolution really provides no epistemic basis for morality. You cannot derive "rightness" or "wrongness" from evolution. Evolution just happens, and the fittest survive. Nothing more.</strong>
I can't understand your basis for this argument. Evolution provides a perfectly adequate answer if your question is 'by what mechanism...' but you apparently insist the question must be 'for what purpose...' in which case you must demonstrate that there is a purpose to begin with without simply asserting or defining that there must be.

<strong>
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Dave: obviously evolution forgot to select those behaviors in bin Laden et al.</strong>
This is pathetic. And you have the gall to complain that my understanding of Christian doctrine is incorrect or incomplete? If this is actually your warped understanding of evolution, I implore you to get your nose out of the apologetics books and into something by Gould or Dawkins. Please tell me you are using "evolution forgot" as a colloquialism for something else.
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Old 05-28-2002, 07:42 AM   #90
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Do we really need to point out that Osama Bin Laden is another theist who got his morals from a "holy book" just as YOU did, Dave?
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I'd like a simple answer to a simple question, Dave. In your worldview, are we punished individually because WE are bad, or punished collectively because ADAM was bad? Because if you're going to argue that God is "just", you must jettison the doctrine of original sin. Punishment cannot be "just" if we are being punished for ADAM's sin!

Dave: unless, of course, Adam's sin is also our sin, as I have contended.
But Adam's sin is NOT our sin. I did not eat the fruit: Adam did. You did not eat the fruit: Adam did. Jesus did not eat the fruit: Adam did. Therefore we CANNOT justly be punished for Adam's sin. Unless you are arguing that we are just as "bad" as Adam: that we WOULD eat the fruit.

Your inability to give a simple, straightforward yes-or-no answer to this question clearly illustrates the incoherence of your worldview.
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Dave: Jesus was the only innocent one ever punished.
...So why was he punished? Why punish ANY innocent person for the crimes of others? And even the guilty shouldn't be punished for the crimes of others, but for their own sins. The Bible clearly states this, and equally clearly contradicts it. Therefore the Bible is incoherent and provides no moral foundation.
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Evolution explains WHY we have a sense of ethics. If you choose to believe evolution didn't happen, the ethics remain.

Dave: this still leaves me without an epistemic reason to adopt this system of ethics. How can you argue, morally, against ANYTHING that I do, since I can just say "well, I am the product of evolution."?
You have the following reasons to behave morally:

1. The Golden Rule.
2. Evolved human empathy.
3. Socially-conditioned conscience.
4. Fear of making enemies.
5. Fear of imprisonment.

If you don't think these reasons are binding, then you may feel free to mistreat others. This freedom, however, will not protect you from the consequences of your actions. Maybe you will get lucky and escape the consequences anyhow, but this is unlikely.

If you are asking how metaphysical naturalism accounts for an absolute, universal moral code which supersedes all these other reasons, then it accounts for it as follows:

An absolute, universal moral code DOES NOT EXIST.

...So what part of DOES NOT EXIST will you now pretend not to understand? This fully accounts for it. You may not like that answer, but that's just your personal preference: you have presented absolutely no shred of evidence whatsoever to support your assertion that this worldview is factually incorrect.

Further, the nonexistence of this universal standard does NOT magically make all the other reasons disappear. "No absolute morality" does NOT equal "no morality".
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Dave: ahhh, but the answer to your question is precisely the reason why believing in the necessity of Jesus is not arbitrary. God is indeed omnipotent - but He is also just, cannot lie, and thus cannot overlook sin. He must meet sin with wrath - either in the sinner, or in the Substitute (Jesus).
There is absolutely no reason whatsoever to believe that any of this is true.
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Yes, you HAVE seen a coherent atheistic alternative. You won't accept that it IS coherent, but you have yet to demonstrate that it is NOT coherent. Therefore your claim to have "reduced it to meaninglessness because of self-refutation, arbitrariness, and inconsistency" is false.

Dave: I have addressed your account of ethics above. It still leaves us with no basis to challenge each other's ethical actions - since we are all the product of evolution.
You still have 5 reasons. You're accustomed to a system of arithmetic in which 3=1, so maybe that's why you think 5=0.
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But, according to you, ALL morality stems from God: without God, we cannot be moral (even if we don't recognize that God is the root of all morality): this is the substance of your claim that God is necessary for morality. Therefore we are using the measuring stick that God provided!

Dave: indeed. That's the point...

...Dave: again, you are using your own human (thus sinful) measuring stick. You are dialoguing within your own paradigm.
Surely even YOU can see the contradiction between "the measuring stick that God provided" and "your own human (thus sinful) measuring stick"!
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Dave: the fact that God works in different matters does not mean that God changes - since His interactions are still based on the same fundamental attributes and His unchanging character.
According to the Bible, God DOES change his mind about many things: he REPENTS.
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Gen 22:2: Yes, in the current version of the Bible.

Dave: is there an older textual variant that would prove otherwise?
There was a thread in BC&A some time ago in which it was suggested that Abraham originally sacrificed Isaac. The Bible was heavily edited during the transition from polytheism to monotheism during the Babylonian captivity.
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Dave: the text does not say that children are to be offered to God IN THE SAME WAY as the fruits. Nor were the fruit offerings always burned in the OT.
The context is clear.
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Dave: sacrifices to God does not always mean a burnt or blood sacrifice.
There are many examples of "burnt or blood" sacrifices. That IS the Biblically-approved method.
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Dave: a "tribute" is not necessarily a blood or burnt sacrifice either. Reading far too much into the text here.
There are only two ways of giving PEOPLE as tribute: making them join the priesthood, or sacrificing them. The text is quite specific here: the PRISONERS (along with the sheep and so forth) were given for a "heave offering". They were sacrificed. Your refusal to accept the plain text of the Bible is telling.
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Dave: the fact that God grants military success does not imply an endorsement of Jephthah's promise. Nor is it inconceivable that Jephthah carried this out himself.
Nope, the monopoly of the priesthood was absolute. King Uzziah was struck down with leprosy for daring to perform a religious rite. He was one of several Biblical figures to suffer unpleasant fates for unauthorized forms of worship. The priests would have killed and burned Jephtah's daughter.

Incidentally, in Leviticus 32, the Israelites captured 32,000 Midianite virgins as war booty. 32 of those virgins became human sacrifices: the Lord's share.
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Dave: the Bible says that God does not tolerate human sacrifices ("sacrifice" understood as being ceremonial and atoning in nature). In another sense, he calls all Christians to be "sacrifices" go God, in that we live for Him.
Yes, this is a Biblical contradiction. But we have long since established the fact that the Bible provides no consistent basis for morality. You still have not explained why "no human sacrifices" is your preferred option. You could just as easily have insisted that human sacrifices are good, and dismissed the Biblical injunction against them as an error or a temporary rule for that time period (just as modern Christians seek to argue that "eternal" OT laws are no longer binding).

Why didn't you?
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Dave: obviously atheistic presuppositions were coarsing through the minds of those "Christians" who had problems with God in the Old Testament. They just didn't want God to be God. They imposed their own (human, sinful) criteria onto the Old Testament God, assuming that they did not need to begin their reasoning FROM Him (a necessary Christian presupposition).
So now a person raised as a Christian, who presupposes that the Christian God exists, has "atheistic presuppositions"? Yet more of your case dissolves into incoherence.
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If you claim to have a coherent worldview, then you must provide the "morally sufficient reason".

Dave: I think I do know (at least part) of that reason. But I do not need to know that reason necessarily. I just need to know that it exists, and that God knows it. But whether I know it or not, my response alleviates the alleged contradiction in the POE.
And, if I was as desperate as you are, I could argue for anything at all in the same way: "I do not need to know how the naturalistic Universe supports an absolute moral code, I just need to know that it does". This is another huge, gaping HOLE in your worldview. You cannot plug it. Your ship is sinking.
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Dave: I do believe unbelievers are lying. But this does not contradict the fact that God has foreordained that some are condemned to this self-deception.
Why would God do this? Let me guess: "I don't know". Glug, glug, glug...
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Also, I highly doubt you can produce "various biblical verses" that contradict God's work of predestination, when it is explicitly taught in Ephesians 1, Romans 8-9, etc.
And I'm sure you realize by now that I can provide Biblical justification for salvation by faith alone, by works, or by predestination. Glug, bubble, bubble.
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Dave: the proof lies in the fact that the Scriptures present us with knowledge that is necessary to come into a saving relationship with God. There is no way for man to come into a right relationship with God because of our sin - unless there is a Substitute (Jesus) to bear the wrath that our sins merit.
This is not PROOF, Dave: this is fantasy. You can no longer tell the difference.
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