Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
01-14-2003, 12:24 PM | #21 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Oct 2001
Location: Canada
Posts: 3,751
|
I think I'm some sort of relativist. And I find myself using logic an awful lot. Am I an antinomy?
(No paralogisms of laughter, now...) |
01-14-2003, 12:50 PM | #22 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Nov 2002
Location: California
Posts: 1,000
|
quote:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------Or I avoid the false trilemma altogether and simply go by the belief that your "mental states" are literally just neural activity. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- What would you do with someone who picked up a rock and told you it just is a tree? Presumably, you'd tell him that he was just abusing language or else was determined to think a contraduction. Well, I'm in a similar position here. The simple fact of the matter is, all that goes on in your brain is certain electrical-chemical impluses which mechanically cause neurons to go into certain states. All the "information" in your brain is just a certain frequency of synaptic impulses. *Nowhere* in the brain is this information "decoded" into the qualities you experience. On a physical level, all you'll find is certain interactions between point particles and the changing of certain feild values. All of this is completely and totally different from what we consciously experience. Thus the claim that they are "identical" is meaningless, unless you are using "indentity" in some bizarre new sense of your own. quote: --------------------------------------------------------------------------------Neural hardware establishing certain dispositions?? Exegenetic tendencies in our mode of thought? Though I am not sure. This is more a question for neurology then philosophy. My lack of knowledge as to the specific or technical factors of how I get knowledge are irrelevant in the field of jusifying knowledge or a given existential position. That's kind of like asking an empiricist about the physiological mechanisms of the eye. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------- No, it is not irrelevent. Even if I were to experience two things to be conjoined an *infinite* number of times, that would not be enough to establish that they were *necessairly* connected. If you are a rationalist, then you believe that there is synthetic a priori knowledge (since that's what seperates "rationalists" from "empricists"). For example "every event must have a cause" would be one kind of synthetic a priori statement. Another example would be the belief in the principle of the uniformity of nature, the assumption on which all science proceeds. Unless you can demonstrate that you can account for the existence of synthetic a priori knowledge in a materialist ontology, then you must either give up your materialism or reject your claim to be a rationalist. |
01-14-2003, 03:06 PM | #23 | |
Senior Member
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: San Marcos
Posts: 551
|
Keith
Quote:
Likewise again the statement that "things change according to their nature" assumes that things in fact change. Also the statement that "things change according to their nature" is not the law of identity, which only states that A is A. Observing that things change is to assume that they in fact change. The assumption is conceptual, for otherwise you may simply be like Plato or Xeno and presume the change to be an illusion. Are you saying all knowledge stems from observation? |
|
01-14-2003, 03:08 PM | #24 | |
Senior Member
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: San Marcos
Posts: 551
|
Deathroll
Quote:
|
|
01-14-2003, 03:17 PM | #25 | |||||||||
Senior Member
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: San Marcos
Posts: 551
|
Anthony
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
|||||||||
01-14-2003, 03:24 PM | #26 | ||
Senior Member
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: San Marcos
Posts: 551
|
Hugo
Quote:
Quote:
|
||
01-14-2003, 03:44 PM | #27 | |||||
Senior Member
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: San Marcos
Posts: 551
|
Dominus
Quote:
Quote:
The fact is that while I may see the neurons firing and not the actual interpretation of them firing is not that they are fundamentally different but that I lack the equipment with which to do so. To make an analogy to a blind person a computer has a certain feeling to it. This feeling the blind man identifies as a computer. Now someone states there is a certain look to the computer as well, but the blind man insists "well it cannot be,one is identified by a certain feeling another by how it looks." If it is the same computer how come he cannot see it? Is it because they are two different computer or the computer has two fundamentally different aspect to it with the computer seen not being the same as the one felt? No, the answer lies in the fact that the blind man merely cannot see. It's a problem with processing certain aspects of the enviroment not any difference in the enviroment or object in question itself. I imagine had I the wiring too more or less link up to another brain, I'd see exactly what they were seeing, feel exactly what they are feeling. The neurons are equivalent to mental activity, the difference then between seeing mere neurons and seeing through the eyes of another, so to speak, is how the information is processed exactly. In one sense they are done so via the eye, in another by the mind directly. The difference is thus one of processing only. Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
That seems very unreasonable. Why must I do this? Or I must give some sort of justification for what I believe without "observation"? In this case I'd say at the basic level, by saying they are self-evident, and at a latter by deduction from self-evident concepts or from deduction from self-evident concepts combined with observations. |
|||||
01-14-2003, 03:49 PM | #28 | |||
Regular Member
Join Date: Jul 2000
Location: Florida
Posts: 156
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
|||
01-14-2003, 04:06 PM | #29 |
Regular Member
Join Date: Jul 2000
Location: Florida
Posts: 156
|
Relativism
While we're at it, let me take a shot at relativism.
Relativism is the position that all properties are relations, that is, no absolute qualities exist. Does this view hold that all systems of relations are the same? No, in fact, it almost has to deny equality between systems (that incommensurability thing Kuhn was always so worked up about). Does some absolute means for evaluating the relative merits of one system over another exist? Obviously not. Can one embrace some standard that can make such choices? Of course, although one is never absolutely vindicated in one's choices. Can one choose logic as that tool? Of course, so long as logic is not understood to mean the absolute arbiter of validity, but rather the arbitrary definer of validity. Thus, relativists can embrace logic, even if they are not required to do so. Addendum: One of my reasons for being atheist lies in this definition. If some absolute truth exists, then an absolutely true point of view is logically possible. Thus the danger of the divine. If, on the other hand, no absolute point of view is possible, which relativism denies, then the divine, at least as generally described, is impossible. |
01-14-2003, 04:51 PM | #30 | ||||||
Senior Member
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: San Marcos
Posts: 551
|
Anthony
Quote:
Quote:
This because at one point you are claiming that "all that exists is in my mind" and then saying "but other minds not in my mind...exist." If you are merely saying "are dependent on a mind, not necessarily mind" then you are positing the external, in which case I can posit matter instead of many mental creators/maintainers.\. Quote:
Quote:
Also I am advocating only material properties(you are using the word "mental" in two different senses, presenting my position as a dualism) whereas you are invoking only the mental, in which case you are succeptible to my criticisms. Quote:
Quote:
OR equate the qualities to matter instead of mind. |
||||||
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|