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Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
09-03-2003, 04:08 PM
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#1 |
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Banned
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: England
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Gays and tastes.....
Is it true or accurate to state that gay men are more shallow than straights?
If so, is there any explanation as to why? 
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09-03-2003, 04:12 PM
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#2 |
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Contributor
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: Deep in the heart of mother-lovin' Texas
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If you're straight, then your generalization is false.
 (BTW: what do you mean by "shallow" and "tastes"? It's not clear to me what the connection is.) |
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09-03-2003, 04:52 PM
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#3 |
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Veteran Member
Join Date: Oct 2000
Location: Nashville, TN, USA
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Hell no! I'm as straight as an arrow and I'm completely vapid.
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09-03-2003, 04:59 PM
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#4 |
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Senior Member
Join Date: Jun 2003
Location: Seattle, WA
Posts: 580
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Here we go again....
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09-03-2003, 05:00 PM
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#5 |
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Veteran Member
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: North Carolina
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Running out of topics to bait people with, meritocrat?
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09-03-2003, 05:06 PM
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#6 | |
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Veteran Member
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Re: Gays and tastes.....
Quote:
Helen |
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09-03-2003, 05:27 PM
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#7 |
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Veteran Member
Join Date: Oct 2000
Location: Alberta, Canada
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Yes, what do you mean by "shallow"? Whatever you mean, I was under the impression that it was men in general (straight or gay) who had the reputation of being shallow. *chuckle*
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09-03-2003, 05:28 PM
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#8 |
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Veteran Member
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Location: Austin, TX, USA
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The question in the OP is untestable.
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09-03-2003, 05:52 PM
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#9 |
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Senior Member
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Vancouver, Canada
Posts: 842
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another nugget of wisdom
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09-04-2003, 03:17 AM
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#10 | |
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Banned
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: England
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Quote:
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