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Old 04-05-2002, 01:37 PM   #171
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Metacrock,

Quote:

Now why don't modern Christains raise form the dead? Well they do! that's just ciruclar reasoning. they do. I've met four of them.
I would be very interested in seeing this dubious claim proven.

Sincerely,

Goliath
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Old 04-05-2002, 01:38 PM   #172
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Quote:
Originally posted by Tercel:
<strong>Hasn’t it been repeated enough that people are often happy to die for what they believe with all their heart to be true, but no one would die for something they knew to be a lie.</strong>
REALLY? So you would agree with the following statement: No otherwise rational person would ever give up their lives for a lie, even if they had lied to everyone they knew, gained a great deal of stature by telling the lie, and even if it meant that telling the truth would result in a miserable, lonely life, an alienation from their families, a loss of friends, a complete loss of public reverence, and a complete loss of honor and respect from all; whereas by sticking to their story, they would die a honorable death (in the eyes of those they cared about). ?

Are you aware that otherwise rational people choose death just because their stock holdings drop in value? Just because short-term relationships end? Just because they're in a particularly bad mood? Do you still agree with my statement in bold?
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Old 04-05-2002, 01:39 PM   #173
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Atticus_Finch,

You have shown yourself to be a weasel and a coward. Why do you not respond to my simple question?

I'll state it yet again.

You posted:

Quote:

If one believes that Jesus (1)lived, (2)worked miracles, (3)claimed to be god in the flesh, (4)was killed and (5)rose from the dead, it only makes sense to believe in the Christian God.
I replied:

Quote:

Theorem: Given any two real numbers x and y, x=y.

Proof: If x=y, then by substitution x=x. Therefore x-x=x-x, whence 0=0. QED.

What is the problem with the proof?
Well...? I'm still waiting.

Sincerely,

Goliath

(edited for rewording)

[ April 05, 2002: Message edited by: Goliath ]</p>
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Old 04-05-2002, 01:50 PM   #174
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Meta,

I don't doubt that you've met four people who have convinced you that they at one point met some definition of "dead", and are now, by some definition, "alive." I don't think anyone doubts that. Similarly, there are people who have looked me straight in the face and told me that aliens do kidnap and anally probe humans (and that they happened to know four such people).
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Old 04-05-2002, 01:51 PM   #175
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Now why don't modern Christains raise form the dead? Well they do! that's just ciruclar reasoning. they do. I've met four of them.

Please, I want to see the evidence!
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Old 04-05-2002, 03:33 PM   #176
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Finch--[personal insult deleted] let me explain a few things, in case they haven't been covered for you. Proving the divinity of a man, that doesn't exist in history--without controversy-and then proving his divinity is almost impossible. It is impossible to prove that someone is divine, that they have the features and qualties of a mono-theistic God-type.
(1) In order to be a God, or divine, one must be omnipotent. And since omnipotence is a paradox, it doesn't exist, therefore we have already disqualified the divinity of Jesus, however there are other ways to disprove his divinity...
(2) Omniscient is another qualification that is impossible to prove, because in order for someone to understand and prove--to an audience with doubt--one must present conclusive evidence. So the only way to prove that Jesus is omniscient is for him to share with us everything he knows, which (a) according to Christians is impossible [Jesus doesn't know the "end time"], (b) I doubt we would understand everything Jesus would have to save (if he were who he said he was) and (c)in order to verify that Jesus knew everything (was omniscient), we would have to be omniscient ourselves. Impossible!
(3) One quality that is most impossible to prove is one of eternal existance; the argument is unstable, irrational and impossible. In order to prove that one exists forever--i.e. Jesus, God, souls etc.--one must exist forever, and one can never prove this, because as the words forever and eternal state, there is never an ending. Therefore it is impossible to prove that someone or something exists forever! Impossible.
* If Jesus is omnipotent, then couldn't he just have taken our sins away, instead of having to die on the cross. Or did he just like blood and violence, a glutton for punishment?
** There are many more examples of why Jesus and his divinity are a myth, I was just getting "warmed up" so to speak. This is the reasons Christianity sucks. It is such a weak and pathetic argument.

Unfortunately Finch--for you--it is impossible to prove the divinity of Jesus. Therefore the argument on which your whole reason for being a christian rests, has been destoryed [personal insult deleted]

Jefferson,

Please keep our <a href="http://www.infidels.org/infidels/forumrules.html" target="_blank">Forum Rules & Policies</a> in mind and do not use abusive language towards other posters. Thanks much, PB.

Having said that, let me be the first to welcome you to II!

[ April 05, 2002: Message edited by: Pompous Bastard ]

[ April 11, 2002: Message edited by: Jefferson ]</p>
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Old 04-05-2002, 03:43 PM   #177
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A particular dirty way to hold an argument - use definitions away from the norm, proceed as if it was the norm, then reveal the actual definition twenty posts later after numerous replies have been made in regard to the ambigious definition. It wastes everyone's time, and for some reason, theists love doing this (Leonarde just used a version of this on Koy, Albert Capriani just loved doing this to his opponents). Maybe it's just a stalling tactic...
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Old 04-05-2002, 08:48 PM   #178
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Cool

Quote:
Hey congradulations! You are actually developing a wit!
Compliments always appriciated, but not as much as a debater who doesn't run away after getting his arguments thrashed.
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Old 04-05-2002, 10:09 PM   #179
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Madmax,

Quote:
what you "think" has no bearing on what naturalism would "be more at home" with - sorry.
Metaphysical naturalism is essentially dependant upon a universe that has an order whereby which we can perceive a regularity of events and causes - (i.e. it must appear at least largely "orderly" - to us). If this were not the case, we couldn't formulate any laws or theories or any reasonable hypotheses about how the world functions. The universe would be largely or entirely random thus nullifying naturalism's ability to explain anything.
In one sentence you’ll telling me that what I think “has no bearing” on the truth, yet with the next you are stating your opinions as truth! At least I had the honesty to point out that it was my opinion.

As to your point, I must disagree. In my opinion you are confusing Methodological and Metaphysical Naturalism.
Methodological naturalism I would define as the idea that the universe works in general by intelligible and consistent “laws” which are discoverable by analysis of the natural world without reference to the supernatural.
Metaphysical naturalism on the other hand is the idea that the supernatural does not exist.
To see the difference, it may help to note that I am a Metaphysical Supernaturalist and a Methodological Naturalist. I believe that the Christian God exists and can and does upon occasion interfere in the natural order (Hence my Metaphysical Supernaturalism). I also believe that my God, as an intelligent agent, is responsible for the creation of the world and that a world created by him would be governed in general by intelligible and consistent “laws” which he established and which we can discover by analysis of the natural world - By “thinking God’s thoughts after him” so to speak. (Hence my Methodological Naturalism)
To me my Methodological Naturalism seems to be right at home in my Metaphysical Supernaturalism. I would say it’s implied by my particular version of Metaphysical Supernaturalism.

Methodological naturalism is I agree dependant upon a universe that has an order. The whole point of a methodology is to provide explanations. Hence your point that “the universe [being] largely or entirely random [would nullify] naturalism’s <strong>ability to explain</strong> anything” clearly shows you are here talking about Methodological Naturalism. I completely agree with such a statement.
However, my entire point is that Metaphysical naturalism does not imply Methodological Naturalism. If as you suggest above that the universe appeared disorderly to us then Methodological Naturalism is going to be useless. But I see no compelling reason to think Metaphysical naturalism would find such a universe problematic. Rather I am inclined to think that Metaphysical Naturalism would be perfectly accepting of such an absurd and random universe.

Quote:
<strong>The only way an argument’s value can be zero is if it provides no evidence whatsoever. Even if the critiques cast ‘doubt’ upon an argument, we may still consider that there is say a 10% chance that the argument does work and build this into the cumulative case.</strong>

Please describe how this cumulative case works. If you have 10 arguments that each have a 10% chance of being correct are you saying this adds up to 100%? I sure hope not.
No, if you know some stats you’d know it adds up to 65%.
You can calculate this by:
P(At least one argument is true) = 1 - P(All arguments are false)
= 1 - P(Probability an individual argument is false) ^ Number of Arguments (*)
In this case:
= 1 - 0.9^10
= 0.651321...

Note that I assumed independence of arguments on (*) which may quite possibly not be a good assumption, so any calculation with real examples may have to be modified appropriately.

Quote:
How do you arrive at the 10% chance in the first place? - what probability equation are you using to get that much?
I made up a number.

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Don't forget, if there is a 10% chance it is true, there is a 90% chance it is NOT true. What you've got to do it would seem is demonstrate all of your arguments have a better than 50% chance of being true. Only then could a cumulative case hold any water.
Not true, as demonstrated by the above example.

Quote:
I'm not a mathematician by any means, but I think you'll find this is completely impossible to do with these types of arguments as you simply cannot obtain the proper values to plug into any equation. We're not dealing with objective data here but rather with a lot of subjective interpretation based on ancient stories which we cannot verify.
Of course. Any estimation of how likely you believe an argument is of working will be entirely subjective.

Quote:
<strong>I disagree. This is what I was complaining earlier that you did in your debate. The use of “in principle” serves only to define the supernatural out of existence. If you accept that sort of definition, you are merely presupposing naturalism which begs the question.</strong>

Completely untrue. The use of "in principle" is simply common sense - it is absurd to mandate that naturalism must currently be able to explain all phenomena.
I’m not saying that it should. However, IMO “in principle” is a much more all-encompassing phrase than is necessary here.

Quote:
Theists seem to want to illogically conclude that naturalism will <strong>never</strong> be able to explain X, because it can't currently explain X, which is ridiculous.
Not at all. Rather, I am wanting to conclude that:
C) Naturalism will never be able to explain X if naturalism in our current state of knowledge says that X does not occur.
Anything which is currently a “mystery” or not well understood is clearly not going to fit this criteria since naturalism will make no claims that X cannot happen if the area is not understood.

Quote:
If theists wish to use naturalism's inability to currently explain certain mysteries to support the claim of supernatural entities or forces, then they will have to actually demonstrate that naturalism could never exlain them.
An impossible task in some respects: who knows what will be explained in the future? Hence my complaint that you are making naturalism impossible to disprove. The only solution that I see is for you to grant C above, which I believe is a reasonable solution.

Quote:
Frankly Tercel, I wish we would all just drop these terms "natural" and "supernatural". At their core they are extremely hard to define. Furthermore I think they tend to cloud the issues.
To some extent I agree: arguing with complex ill-defined words is always difficult. However, I believe your apparent confusion between what I term Metaphysical and Methodological naturalism warrants at least a brief examination despite the difficultly.

Quote:
The "in principle" qualifier prevents the absurdity that many theists want to expouse - namely that for any phenomena naturalism is CURRENTLY unable to explain, it should be assumed that it can NEVER explain it and that any supernatural hypothesis theists offer should be accepted as actually true. This is the absurdity that I see supernaturalists continually attempting to propose with their arguments, particularly those that involve mysteries.
If theists are using arguments involving mysteries then they are using the God of the Gaps technique. I suggest you content yourself with pointing out the fallacies of that whenever you see it, as opposed to trying to define their arguments out of existence.

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I do not presuppose naturalism is true, I assume naturalism is true based on the fact that naturalism has been able to explain many things while supernaturalism has never demonstrated it can explain anything,
You’re back to confusing methodological and metaphysical naturalism here.

Quote:
As Andrew even admitted, neither of us can definitively prove our worldviews are correct, therefore it is reasonable to go with what is best supported by the evidence we have.
Agreed.

Quote:
In a nutshell - that's naturalism.
And there we disagree...

Quote:
<strong>Theli and I seem to agree that a reasonable definition of metaphysical/ontological naturalism is:
“the thesis nothing can have any influence on events and conditions in space and time except other events and conditions in space and time. According to the ontological naturalist, there are no causal influences from things ‘outside’ space: either there are no such things, or they have nothing to do with us and our world.”
Since Supernaturalism is the opposition of Naturalism, it would seem to leave us with the definition that Supernaturalism is “the thesis that there exist things outside of space and time which can and do have causal influences on us and/or our world.”
That would certainly seem to me to sum up what I am thinking of when I say “supernaturalism”. </strong>

But what if we were able to explain this being or force such that we could understand how it operates and does whatever it does? Could it still be described as supernatural?
Yes. Whether we understand how it operates or not does not change it’s status. (At least, not by the definition given above) Belief in the supernatural is not the same as belief in that which is not yet understood.

Quote:
<strong>Some examples of persecutions would include:
We have Paul's own testimony that he persecuted early Christians because of their faith in Jesus. That is, Paul is persecuting the FIRST generation of Christians.</strong>

And your evidence that these people were given the chance to recant their beliefs and thus Paul would have stopped his persecution is??
Whether Paul specifically gave the ones he arrested the chance to recant would seem to me to be irrelevant. Any of the Christians could observe that other Christians were being persecuted. Any “Christians” who didn’t want to face the persecution could desert as soon as they saw that other Christians were being persecuted.

Quote:
Assuming you can support that, your evidence that no one ever recanted is??
I am not arguing that not a single Christian ever recanted. Rather I am arguing that none of those who are ever claimed as witnesses of the risen Jesus ever recanted. (As I mentioned earlier, there is not even the remotest hint of any major recantations recorded in either Church or opposition writings. In addition we have positive recordings of what each and every major figure went on to do for the faith)

Quote:
Assuming you can support that, your evidence that you can say what they really knew or didn't know is??
These are the FIRST Christians here, people who were Christians with a couple of years of the date of the supposed resurrection. They included a large group (see my list below) of people who claimed to have personally seen the risen Jesus.

Quote:
<strong>2. We have Paul's own testimony that he was persecuted for his faith in Christ. This includes being scourged by Jewish Authorities on at least five separate occasions.</strong>

And your evidence that these persecutor's really cared whether he recanted or not is?.?
Does it matter? If Paul had been unwilling to endure persecution or not sure of his beliefs don’t you think he’d have stopped preaching Christianity and getting himself persecuted?

Quote:
And your evidence that you can know what Paul really did or did not know is??
Paul claims to be have seen the risen Jesus. Paul claims he teaches the same gospel as other Christians. Paul claims he spent two weeks with the apostle Peter talking to him about the faith. All of which is recorded in Paul’s undisputed letters.

Quote:
<strong>3. Acts. Acts records the martyrdom of Stephen for his high Christology and speaking against the temple. Acts also records that Peter and John were scourged because they would not renounce Christ. Acts also recounts Paul's persecution of the church at the bidding of the Jewish Authorities. Acts also records James? death at the hands of Herod.</strong>

And your evidence that the persecutors really cared whether they recanted or not is..? (I'm looking for more insight here than just that the writer of Acts believed that these people did care. That is hardly surprising.)
I’m still not sure I see the point of this question. If the persecutors are persecuting X because of X’s beliefs and/or preaching of those beliefs then if X no longer believes and/or preaches those beliefs the persecutors are no longer going to be interested in persecuting X.

Quote:
And your evidence you could know what any of these people really knew or didn't know is..?
According to Paul in 1 Cor 15 (not to mention the Gospels), James, Peter and John had all seen the risen Jesus. Whether Stephen had is not clear, but according to Acts he was certainly one of the first generation of Christians and was regularly in the company of all the witnesses.

Quote:
<strong>4. James the brother of Jesus was killed by Jewish Authorities. (See my earlier argument)</strong>

Sorry - couldn't find it. But same questions anyway - How do you know what he really knew or didn't know in regards to his beliefs?
My discussion of James begins half-way down <a href="http://iidb.org/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic&f=50&t=000192&p=4" target="_blank">page 4</a> of this thread. Paul claimed that James had seen the risen Jesus. James was killed by the Saducees which could only have been because of his preaching of the resurrection. (Please read my earlier post before discussing this)

Quote:
<strong>6. We apparently have good evidence that John the Disciple was persecuted for his faith. (But I’m not sure what it is exactly)</strong>

Then I can't count it for much, but in any case, same questions. How do you know what he really did or did not know?
Same answer: He is claimed as a witness to the resurrection by the Gospels and Paul.

Quote:
<strong>7. Both Paul and Peter were most likely killed by Nero for being Christians in his Roman persecution.</strong>

Based on what? Church tradition? Actual evidence? Supposition?
There is an page of discussion between some atheists on the evidence <a href="http://www.bowness.demon.co.uk/martyrs2.htm" target="_blank">here</a>. (At least I know both Peter Kirby and Steven Carr are atheists).

Quote:
What you need to show is that its more unlikely that someone would "die for a lie" than that someone was raised from the dead, because that's at the heart of your argument. I’m not sure how you'll do that.
The argument is not that one person would not "died for a lie”. But that many people would be prepared to endure persecution (and sometimes repeated persecution and death) for something they knew to be a lie without any of them ever admitting it as such.
I can but again quote Blaise Pascal:
“The human heart is singularly susceptible to fickleness, to change, to promises, to bribery.. or still more because of possible imprisonment, torture and death”
Yet despite this universal truth, all those who claimed to have seen the risen Lord remained dedicated to their stories in the face of these things.

Quote:
<strong>Who witnessed this supposed resurrection? Names please.
Peter (aka Simon), Andrew brother of Peter, James and John the sons of Zebedee, Philip, Bartholomew, Matthew (aka Levi), Thomas, James son of Alphaeus, Simon the Patriot, Judas (aka Thaddaeus) son of James, Cleopas, Simon, Mary Magdalene, Joseph (aka Barsabbas aka Justus), Matthias, James the Brother of Jesus, and Paul. As well as some 500 others according to Paul in 1 Corinthians 15.</strong>

Wrong. These people supposedly saw Jesus after he was supposedly raised from the dead.
You’re equivocating. They were witnesses of the resurrection in that they saw Jesus after God raised him from the dead.

Quote:
Even according to the biblical texts, no one actually saw him rise from the dead.
Agreed.

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Of course we don't have any real testimony we can point to from them - what we have are some anonymous author(s) telling us such and such,
We have Paul’s testimony in 1 Corinthians 15, that’s hardly anonymous. He refers to specific people some of whom he elsewhere mentions personally meeting, that’s not anonymous either.
We have Mark and Luke, for both of which I think it can be reasonably argued are by the people their titles’ attribute them to. Even if I accepted that all four gospels were anonymous, what basis does that give for ignoring what they say? For example the joint books of Luke/Acts have shown themselves accurate in over 95% (and for the remainder of that it is not at all certain they are wrong) of the cases we have been able to test their historical accuracy.

Quote:
OR we have very late accounts which could easily have been based on an earlier tradition or writings.
How “very late” is late enough to completely destroy our confidence in their accuracy? And why is it bad to use earlier traditions or writings - Historians do it all the time!

Tercel

[ April 06, 2002: Message edited by: Tercel ]

[ April 07, 2002: Message edited by: Tercel ]</p>
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Old 04-06-2002, 12:15 AM   #180
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[/quote]
Quote:
Tercel:
To me my Methodological Naturalism seems to be right at home in my Metaphysical Supernaturalism. I would say it’s implied by my particular version of Metaphysical Supernaturalism.
However, the only sort of God it would likely support is some sort of Deist God; it does not fit the God of the Bible very well.

Quote:
Tercel:
Whether Paul specifically gave the ones he arrested the chance to recant would seem to me to be irrelevant. Any of the Christians could observe that other Christians were being persecuted. Any “Christians” who didn’t want to face the persecution could desert as soon as they saw that other Christians were being persecuted.
So what about persecution? The Roman authorities only objected because the early Christians had refused to worship the official gods. And many of the stories of persecution are little better than myth.

Quote:
Tercel:
As I mentioned earlier, there is not even the remotest hint of any major recantations recorded in either Church or opposition writings.
Pliny the Younger recorded some recantations.

Quote:
Tercel:
Paul claims to be have seen the risen Jesus. Paul claims he teaches the same gospel as other Christians. Paul claims he spent two weeks with the apostle Peter talking to him about the faith. All of which is recorded in Paul’s undisputed letters.
So what? He had some sort of vision. And that was all that Christ was to Paul -- a vision. Paul never tried to visit the places where some supposed historical Jesus Christ had lived and died; he never tried to visit Golgotha, despite the importance of Christ's crucifixion in his creed.

Quote:
Tercel:
According to Paul in 1 Cor 15 (not to mention the Gospels), James, Peter and John had all seen the risen Jesus. ...
Visions again. Anyone can have a vision of something.

Quote:
Tercel:
I can but again quote Rene Descartes:
“The human heart is singularly susceptible to fickleness, to change, to promises, to bribery.. or still more because of possible imprisonment, torture and death”
Yet despite this universal truth, all those who claimed to have seen the risen Lord remained dedicated to their stories in the face of these things.
If they had simply had visions, then so what?

Also, I wonder if all the people who have been willing to die for Islam over the centuries have impressed Tercel enough to make him convert to Islam.

Quote:
Tercel:
We have Mark and Luke, for both of which I think it can be reasonably argued are by the people their titles’ attribute them to.
Maybe, but I wouldn't bet on that.

Quote:
Tercel:
Even if I accepted that all four gospels were anonymous, what basis does that give for ignoring what they say? For example the joint books of Luke/Acts have shown themselves accurate in over 95% (and for the remainder of that it is not at all certain they are wrong) of the cases we have been able to test their historical accuracy.
That's probably correct for background details, but any good historical novelist would likely score at least as good. And it would be interesting to score the Iliad using the same "technique". If the Iliad turns out to score high, then will Tercel convert to Hellenic paganism?

Quote:
Madmax:
OR we have very late accounts which could easily have been based on an earlier tradition or writings.
Tercel:
How “very late” is late enough to completely destroy our confidence in their accuracy? And why is it bad to use earlier traditions or writings - Historians do it all the time!
A misunderstanding. The problem here is that the "accounts" of the life of Jesus Christ show evidence of having been rewritten, which may not be surprising when one considers their hagiographical nature.
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