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Old 01-10-2003, 02:21 AM   #321
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Given that many arthropods are aquatic and many flying insects reproduce in the water, it is quite possible that flying insects "originated" from aquatic insects and actually existed prior to land insects. We may very well find some fossils that confirm that.
Taking off from water is much more difficult than taking off from land. This is especially true for a small creature such as an insect, due to surface tension. Insects such as mosquitoes have solved this problem by never getting wet. They land ON the water, not IN it. Even the young emerge from the larval stage ONTO the surface before flying off.
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jtb: And still no overlap. "And the evening ad the morning were the fifth day".

See above about metaphorical usage.
See above about why you're wrong. Mumbling "metaphorical usage" won't help you. Genesis is quite clear about the demarcation of the creation "days".
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jtb: The claim that Biblical genealogies weren't exaustive is pure fiction invented by apologists. The term translated as "son of", when used in a genealogy, DOES mean "son of": because the intent of the passage is to lay out a genealogy.

Hardly, this was known about ancient genealogies even before Darwin. Matthew and the OT genealogies are not complete chronologies but rather abbreviated genealogies.
Matthew is CLAIMED to be a complete genealogy, as I have already pointed out. It claims to show ALL the generations.

What is KNOWN about these ancient genealogies is that they are FALSE.
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No, they are telling the age of the ancestor when he became the ancestor of the famous descendent. For example say I was a descendent of R.E. Lee. When Lee was 30 he became the father of my great great grandfather, therefore the ancient jews would say "Lee became the ancestor of Ed when he was 30 years old".
No, he did NOT. Lee would have been your ancestor all along, he did not BECOME your ancestor when he was 30 years old. This is pure nonsense.
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If mistreat does not include rape then it doesn't include anything.
And murdering a woman's family, then forcing her to marry the murderer, is NOT mistreatment in itself, regardless of whether rape occurs or not?

The Jews did not consider EITHER rape OR forcing female captives to marry the murderers of their families to be "mistreatment".
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jtb: Please explain why these women would rather be raped by the men who murdered their families than by strangers.

Because these men were being encouraged to marry these women by their leaders. Strangers are just that, an unknown factor and also by spending time with them for a month they could see the superior Hebrew society compared to their barbaric canaanite societies.
"Strangers are an unknown factor".

Ed, PLEASE apply a STUPIDITY CHECK to your posts!!!

How bad can a stranger be???

It's BETTER to be definitely raped by those who definitely murdered all your relatives, than to risk the possibility of being raped by somebody else who might be a murderer?

And the barbaric Hebrew society was NOT superior!
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Being repugnant to you is irrelevant, you need to reread the facts of the case that I have explained above.
The FACTS are that there is no evil at all that you aren't prepared to tolerate and excuse.
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Your absurd implication that normal men WANT to be sexually attacked by stronger women was not worth even mentioning. I was actually giving you a chance to come up with something better!
Rapists don't generally WANT to attack their victims. They want to HAVE SEX with their victims. A rapist who has a fixation on a particular woman will typically convince himself that "she said no, but she really meant yes". The rapist will convince himself that only her inhibitions are preventing her from really enjoying it, and that he's actually doing her a favor and giving her a good time if she would just relax a little.

The attitude of the rapist is identical to your idiotic belief that women forced to marry the murderers of their families "will eventually be grateful for it".
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You can certainly CLAIM it, but almost all the scientific evidence points to it being an effect, ie it had a beginning and etc., so I would say my answer is a little better if you put any stock in science.
Scientists know NOTHING about any supposed "cause" of the Universe. There are some highly speculative theories, but no scientific evidence whatsoever for a specific causal agent. Therefore your claim is pure fiction, as usual.
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Actually this problem goes deeper than I have let on. If there is no God then you do not even have a rational basis for believing in an external reality. It could just be a very realistic dream.
And you are in exactly the same position. Theists have no defense aginst the "brain-in-a-jar" argument. God is irrelevant to this.
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Only theists have a rational basis for believing that there is an objective reality, because a subject-object correlation was established at creation between the creator and the creation. So you do not even know if the evidence for evolution even actually exists.
No, a subject-object correlation is an inevitable product of the evolution of sensory apparatus and intelligence. And the evidence for evolution can be perceived plainly by atheist and theist alike. It is equally real to both. It's just that some theists have a mental dysfunction which cripples their capacity for rational thought.
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No, see above about ancient genealogies. A better translation would be "these are all the significant generations".
Please provide the Aramaic word for "significant" that you claim the translators missed.

If you cannot provide clear evidence that this word was present in the original Aramaic text and omitted during translation: then you have abandoned the Bible yet again.
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No, I meant his challenge that that was the ONLY reason for their deaths.
It was the only SPECIFIED REASON for their deaths.

All other reasons provided by you are fictional.
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Calm down Jack, I have not lied, or been dishonest, my position and the biblical position is that children can be punished for the sins of their fathers by God because he knows all the relevant facts regarding the children, but as stated in Deut. 24:16, the ancient hebrew government was not allowed to do so unless specifically directed to by God.
You are contradicting yourself AGAIN. If your excuse for God punishing the children is "because he knows all the relevant facts regarding the children", then why claim that "children can be punished for the sins of their fathers"?

Is it OK to punish children for the sins of their fathers or not?

Like the Bible itself, you are utterly unable to give a straightforward answer to this question.
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Old 01-10-2003, 03:05 AM   #322
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Does anyone here have access to Strong's Concordance?

Let's see what the word translated as "begat" actually means.

Ed, I challenge you to provide any evidence whatsoever that the Hebrews customarily skipped generations in genealogies, that the word "begat" means anything other than "fathered" (or "mothered"), and that ANY culture has EVER used this bizarre "X became the ancestor of Y when he fathered the one destined to become the NEXT ancestor of Y" system.

You have stated these as facts. I say you are lying.

It's time you supported your position.
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Old 01-10-2003, 08:03 AM   #323
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless
Does anyone here have access to Strong's Concordance?
Strong's is available online at several locations. Try crosswalk.com, or zondervan.com, or maybe biblegateway.com

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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless
You have stated these as facts. I say you are lying.
Well, maybe that's a bit strong. Isn't it more likely that Ed is simply mistaken or ignorant?

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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless
It's time you supported your position.
Hear, hear! And while you're at it, Ed, perhaps you could give us your definitions of "rational" and "conscious"?

Regards,

Bill Snedden
______________
"There is no god higher than truth." Mohandas Gandhi
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Old 01-11-2003, 08:41 PM   #324
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Originally posted by tommyc
bah, maybe they’re on holiday

Ah yes, your point is that we aren’t on the same moral level as Hitler, because in your opinion there is an objective morality and (hopefully) you would rate me a little higher on the morality stakes. In fact, I am the one who is stating we are on an equal moral level (well actually I’m saying there is no level, but I think you know what I mean).

Well, on the point of it being unjust, we run into yet further difficulties, because in my mind (Im not going to speak for all atheists here as we are a mixed bunch), there is no divine justice, no ultimate authority. The standards most people expect of everyone else are defined by the society of the time. As I don’t believe in true free-will I can’t really blame anyone for what they do, but unfortunately I am not perfect and we all have feelings of revulsion towards people who harm society the most and we wish to punish them for it. Now that may be unjust on a completely objective level, but I certainly wouldn’t call it irrational.

Sure, it’s not the person’s “fault” they committed the crime, but in the interest of public safety they need to be locked away. Again, it may sound unjust from the viewpoint of an “atheist worldview”, but it’s perfectly rational in my mind for a society to protect themselves.

I hope you can understand that an atheist doesn’t need a God to tell him not to kill. He knows killing is bad because he empathises with other human beings, such as the victims family. He has been taught that killing is bad by his parents (whose advice you tend to take as gospel as they generally give you the information you need to survive), and hopefully he realises that acts such as murder and theft are detrimental to society, and most of us prefer to live in a safe environment. And for people who don’t have the benefit of this knowledge, there is prison. Unjust perhaps, but not irrational. Again, if you don’t believe in ultimate justice, then you can’t be unjust.
Actually you just destroyed your whole argument when you said you dont believe in free will. Without a free will you cannot make a "choice" based on empathy. And in fact you have no basis for presenting any argument at all, since without a free will you cannot weigh arguments and make decisions.
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Old 01-11-2003, 09:41 PM   #325
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Originally posted by tommyc

Originally posted by Ed
Absurd. Inaction for an omnipotent being is actually of greater significance than action. And not doing something to stop an evil deed for a greater good is totally unlike actively committing an evil deed. For example, say a man strapped with a highly sensitive bomb starts strangling someone in a crowded mall. By trying to stop him from strangling the person you could set off the bomb so in order to stop thousands from gettting killed you may have to let him kill that one person.


tc: This is a flawed analogy surely, as if God were omnipotent there is no problem where he is forced into a situation where he has no option but to allow something evil to happen. If he's all powerful, how could that ever happen?

If your answer is "free will", then does that mean that God is powerless to change what people do and think? Im guessing he isn't powerless if he's omnipotent, but why would he interfere with some peoples' lives and not others?
The biblical understanding of omnipotence does not mean that God can do absolutely anything. He is limited by some things such as logic and his moral character. And there may be other things and situations in the spiritual dimension that we don't know about that limit what exactly he can do in some situations in order to bring about the greatest good which is always His goal.
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Old 01-12-2003, 08:44 PM   #326
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless
The solution to this problem is simple. I would use my magical powers to disable the bomb before tackling the man. Ain't omnipotence wonderful?

I am continually amused by the fact that even Christians don't actually believe that God is omnipotent. They may claim that they believe this, but deep down on a subconscious level, they are simply unable to accept the implications of such a claim.

Hence the never-ending stream of lame analogies based on what a non-omnipotent being would do in a variety of situations.

No, see my post to tommyc above concerning the biblical understanding of omnipotence.
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Old 01-12-2003, 09:12 PM   #327
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless
Ed is particularly good at the "not getting it" ploy.

For instance:

The implication here is that Christians DO have a "rational basis" for condemning Hitler. Among the many, many points that Ed isn't addressing is this supposed RATIONAL Christian basis for condemning Hitler.


The rational basis is the existence of a moral God with an objective moral character and standard. Atheists do not have any such basis. Morality is a matter of preference or subjective pragmatism.

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jtb: There doesn't appear to be a Biblical basis for condemning Hitler, because he simply did to the Jews what they did to the Amalekites (and in God's name, too).
Fraid so, it is "You shall not murder." The ancient hebrews were God's arm of justice against the Amalekites for what they had done, Hitler killed the jews for who they were, what they had done was irrelevant. Therefore what Hitler did was murder, what God did thru the Israelites was legitimate capital punishment.


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jtb: But even if we ignore the nasty stuff in the Bible and just use "Jesus wouldn't like it": why is this a RATIONAL reason not to do it?

Why, exactly, should any Christian care whether Jesus likes it or not? How is it RATIONAL to care?

Because they want to go to Heaven? What is the RATIONAL reason for going to Heaven?

Sooner or later, they must acknowledge an EMOTIONAL reason: they WANT something.
No, you are misunderstanding. See above for the rational basis for Christian morality. Christians obey Christ out of love for him, but the difference is that the Christian's emotion has the rational basis mentioned above.


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jtb: Metaphysical naturalism is superior to Christianity because it provides an entirely rational foundation for the existence of such emotions: they stem from survival mechanisms favored by natural selection.

The closest Christianity ever gets to a rational explanation of these emotions is the "imago Dei", or "image of God": we have these emotions because God has them, and we are "made in God's image".

There is no explanation of why God has these emotions, or why he chose to build them into us. Furthermore, this collides headlong with the "free will" argument. If God built behavior-constraining emotions into us, there goes "free will". So why didn't he do a better job of programming inmibitions on violence into us, given that he's already scrapped free will anyhow?
Actually human morality is more than emotions. People generally try to live their lives according to what they think is reality. If they think that there is an objective moral standard, ie God's moral character, they are more likely to live according to that standard. On the other hand if they think that morality is just based on subjective feelings then they have a tendency to live their moral lives in a less consistent manner. Their behavior becomes more centered around the self and its emotions, i.e. they do what feels good irregardless of what it does or does not do to others around them. This can eventually be detrimental to society.
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Old 01-12-2003, 09:46 PM   #328
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Fraid so, it is "You shall not murder." The ancient hebrews were God's arm of justice against the Amalekites for what they had done, Hitler killed the jews for who they were, what they had done was irrelevant. Therefore what Hitler did was murder, what God did thru the Israelites was legitimate capital punishment.
If your father commited a capital crime, say mass rape and murder, and I executed you along with your father, would that be a case of 'legitimate capital punishment'? Or what if it was some other poor guy down the road whose father just got sentenced to death? Does that mean that the son can be sentenced to death as well?
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Old 01-13-2003, 12:07 AM   #329
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Honestly, it doesn't matter what you say. Anything God does is automatically right, since God is automatically moral. All Christians can do, apparently, is be confused and profess faith a bit, even if their son (for example) dies)
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Old 01-13-2003, 02:19 AM   #330
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Originally posted by Ed
Actually you just destroyed your whole argument when you said you dont believe in free will. Without a free will you cannot make a "choice" based on empathy. And in fact you have no basis for presenting any argument at all, since without a free will you cannot weigh arguments and make decisions.
Ok, Im sorry for not making my position clear on what I define free-will to be. I believe we all make decisions all the time, we receive information, process it and make choices on that. The difference is that I believe we are just highly complex computers, and we will always make the same decision given the same inputs. i.e. the future is mapped out for us and we have no way of changing it. Think of a computer, it processes information according to a set of rules. it makes decisions, but it will always make the same decisions given the same input.

This actually backs up my argument in saying that there is no morality, because you can't blame anyone for what they do. But this doesn't conflict with the idea of justice and punishment, because of course you can't blame the judge for sending them down either.
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