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01-22-2003, 05:18 PM | #51 | |
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I want to cogitate a bit on your comments and formulate a response. Thanks K |
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01-22-2003, 05:21 PM | #52 | |
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K |
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01-22-2003, 05:38 PM | #53 | |
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If the dispute really were about evidence (or the lack thereof) then I might ask what 'evidence' you posses that a universe could exist independant of being created. Of course no one has any such evidence (speculative hypothesis about multi-verses, bubble universes and the like are NOT evidence of anything). But if you don't have evidence that the universe can exist independant of being created then the existence of the universe would be HUGH evidence for a creator. But of course, a non-thiest would reject that conclusion out of hand. Why? Because she has evidence to the contrary? No, because she doesn't. Rather, it's because she doesn't accept the background principles that would give evidentiary status to certain observations. That's a very different thing than saying simply "there is no evidence". Thus I don't think the "no evidence" objection has as much force as many people think. K |
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01-22-2003, 05:45 PM | #54 | |
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Similarly with inductive reasoning. Do you believe there is no evidence to indicate that some forms of reasoning (random generation of conclusions for example) are not reliable? Inductive reasoning is used because it works (in many domains familiar to us). It's not just some random assumption that is continually made without any evidence supporting its use. |
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01-22-2003, 07:20 PM | #55 | |||||||
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You did not exactly specify what you meant by the term ‘rational’ with respect to the belief forming processes of the RN beings. The one clue you did give was your statement to the effect that the belief forming processes of the RN beings “just happen in this world to produce true beliefs a high percentage of the time, although they would fail miserably to do so in most other worlds that do not share the idiosyncrasies of this one.” I take it from this comment that what you may have in mind when you apply the term ‘rational’ to belief forming processes, is to designate a set of processes that tend to produce true beliefs not only in the possible world in which these agents find themselves, but also across the vast majority of all possible worlds. By way of response, I would argue that, by this criterion, human beings themselves could be classified as RN beings, at least with respect to many of our belief forming processes, in which case our beliefs would also not be warranted if your analysis is correct. Many of the belief forming processes of human beings would likely not produce a high percentage of true beliefs across all possible worlds. For instance, the philosopher Hilary Kornblith, in his essay, “Naturalist Epistemology and Its Critics,” cites a study which shows that “human beings have a natural tendency to draw conclusions about a population of objects on the basis of extremely small samples, indeed, often on the basis of a single case.” This tendency violates the statistical rule of making inferences from appropriately large sample sizes and thus the authors of this study argue this means that human beings are naturally inclined to reason poorly. Kornblith, however, believes this conclusion to be mistaken. The natural environment in which human beings find themselves is such that it displays a great deal of repetitiveness. Consequently, according to Kornblith, “we ought to be asking, not whether [our tendency to make hasty generalizations] would work well in any possible environment, but whether it works well in the environments in which human beings tend to be found.” In this instance, Kornblith believes this inferential tendency on the part of human beings does work well in the type of environment in which humans find themselves such that there is nothing irrational in human beings forming their beliefs in this way in most instances. This one of the great strengths of externalism, in my opinion. It draws attention, not to the processes by which some ideally rational agent might form its beliefs in all possible worlds, but to the manner in which beliefs are actually formed by human beings in this world and to the extent to which they can be trusted to yield reliable conclusions, not in any possible world, but in this world. Human cognitive processes were not adapted to suit all possible worlds; they were adapted to suit the world in which human beings find themselves. One need not even cite any studies concerning a human tendency of violating basic statistical rules of inference to make this point. Human reliance on inductive reasoning, our rejection of grue-like predicates, our tendency to believe in the existence of other minds – all of these belief forming mechanisms are likely to produce false beliefs most of the time in vast numbers of possible worlds. That is irrelevant to whether or not our beliefs are rational and warranted, however, because the question we are concerned with is whether or not our belief forming processes tend to form true beliefs in this world. If they do, then we can rely upon them, regardless of whether or not they would work well in other possible worlds. Quote:
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God Bless, Kenny P.S. SRB, I have not forgotten you. I will try to get to your post soon. |
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01-22-2003, 08:08 PM | #56 | |
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Supporting evidence and lack of contradicting evidence can obviously make a belief rational (any objections?). I'd still like to know what else can make a belief rational. You seemed to imply that being correct makes a belief rational. Let me give you a hypothetical. Let's say that a person believes beyond the shadow of a doubt that Oakland is going to win on Sunday because Oakland and Raiders each have the same number of letters (and vowels). Now this person bets everything on Oakland knowing it's a guaranteed win. If Oakland does win, does that make the belief rational? If so, we're working with entirely different definitions of rational. If not, what separates this example from any other belief for which there is absolutely no supporting evidence? |
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01-23-2003, 08:13 AM | #57 | |||||||||
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Re: Re: Re: Re: Welcome Back, Kuyper! Thanks!!
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\Om`ni*pres"ent\, a. [Omni- + present: cf.F. omnipr['e]sent.] Present in all places at the same time; ubiquitous; as, the omnipresent Jehovah. --Prior. Webster refutes your artful dodge. You can't wish this argument away by redefining words! Quote:
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But I digress. You simply evaded the whole issue. Quote:
AGAIN, I offered BOTH choices (either evolution happened or it didn't). and argued that EITHER choice brings with it a set of conflicts with the dominant xtian doctrines. (I presumed that you weren't a creationist, so I didn't see the need to specify the counterevidence to that myth.). I focused on the threats evolution in any form brings to xtain theology. The most fundamental of these is the "specialness" of humanity in creation (i.e. only humans have souls), rationalized by the recognition that our sentience has given us dominion over the animals (though theists credit god with this gift of dominion). I pointed to the threat that THIS concept is what actually puts evolution permanently at odds with theology. What was that argument? It was: Implicit in acceptance of evolution is the inevitability that humanity will be replaced by a more evolved sentient species, successfully challenging man's claim to being the crown of god's creation. You totally failed to grasp this...or you chose not to address it. For that reason, your "second" and "third" responses are not germane to my point. Quote:
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To bring this back to the original arugment, here is the quote: Quote:
I rest my case. |
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01-23-2003, 08:27 AM | #58 | |
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01-23-2003, 08:41 AM | #59 | |
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Re: Must theistic belief have evidence to rational?
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Is the belief in Allah over God rational? Is the belief in the truth of the Koran over the Bible rational? Is the belief in invisible pink unicorns who live in my backyard rational? Is the belief in Santa Claus rational? |
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01-23-2003, 09:17 AM | #60 | ||
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Second: From those observations, the extension of observed phenomena back towards the instant of "creation" (I use that word advisedly here because of all the baggage that it carries with it, but out of necessity, because we have no more descriptive word for it.) can be reasonably postulated. We don't have to observe the instant of creation to be able to predict major features of it, and to thereby predict (contemporarily) unobserved (but observable) residual evidences. Later observations of the predicted residual attribute would thereby be considered confirming "evidence" of the accuracy of the model. Such predictions and confirmations DO exist. In fact two scientists conducting tests having nothing to do with cosmology (hence, no vested interest in any particular outcome) were awarded a Nobel Prize for detecting just such a residue (in 1965). There are many more such examples since. Third: The relativistic effect of mass on spacetime is well understood. The relativistic effect of same at the instant of creation was infinite. This is to say that there was no "before" the Big Bang (BB). Since causality is a time-dependent entity, cause/effect relationship also is meaningless. Ergo: All arguments arising out of either of these concepts are inapplicable on the far side of the BB event. The creator/creation relationship dissolves under the light of these "knowns", in that it declares any properties of any reality external to or not subsequent to the BB are unknowable, period. Quote:
Your assertions here are a classic example of transferrance. The qualities you project on non-theists: "rejection out of hand", "not accepting the background principles that would give evidentiary status" are qualities absolutely necessary to the maintenance of theistic belief, as demonstrated in my immediately preceding post to you. |
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