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Old 01-22-2003, 05:18 PM   #51
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Originally posted by bd-from-kg
But regardless of the status of the beliefs of the Type RR beings, it seems clear that the beliefs of the Type RN beings do not have warrant, even though they meet Plantinga’s criterion. This would seem to smash his criterion for warranted beliefs to smithereens.
You were doing find up to your last sentence. While you present a novel approach to Plantinga, it's a bit premature to speak of "smashing to smithereens". I've not doubt that Plantinga himself would have some good responses to your examples. But since he's not here (AFAIK "Al...are you here??), we'll have to muddle forward as best we can.

I want to cogitate a bit on your comments and formulate a response.

Thanks

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Old 01-22-2003, 05:21 PM   #52
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Originally posted by Philosoft
I'm not sure what is the distinction you're trying to make, or why you're trying to make it. Is it your contention that the "proposition" rational belief needs to be supported by a proof? Because, no matter what you do, I'll never call a non-evidenced belief "rational." I do not see the need to. That doesn't mean non-evidenced beliefs can't be true. A non-evidenced (irrational/non-rational) belief that turns out to be true is justified but still irrational.
Sorry, Phil, but I'm not seeing your logic here. If a belief is true, how is it irrational? That just doesn't make sense to me.

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Old 01-22-2003, 05:38 PM   #53
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Originally posted by Philosoft

True, evidence itself either exists or it does not. But the crucial part of a rational belief is the availability of the evidence to the believer. [/B]
Ah, but that goes to what we mean by "evidence". Here, I think, things get a bit messy. It just isn't all that clear what is meant by evidence in this case. The objection seems to be that theistic belief isn't rational because there is no evidence for it. Now, a theist (such as myself) might take certain experiences I've had as evidence of God at work in my life. I might also see evidence in creation and in other ways. In claiming that I have no such evidence, the objector surely isn't claiming that I don't exist, or that the cosmos doesn't exist, or that I've had no such experiences. To me the objection doesn't seem to rest so much on lack of evidence as it does on non-acceptance of certain back ground principles that give evidentiary status to things. The whole "no evidence" objection, is, I think, really not about lack of evidence, but about staking out a philosophical position that won't allow a connection to be drawn between certain observations and belief in God.

If the dispute really were about evidence (or the lack thereof) then I might ask what 'evidence' you posses that a universe could exist independant of being created. Of course no one has any such evidence (speculative hypothesis about multi-verses, bubble universes and the like are NOT evidence of anything). But if you don't have evidence that the universe can exist independant of being created then the existence of the universe would be HUGH evidence for a creator. But of course, a non-thiest would reject that conclusion out of hand. Why? Because she has evidence to the contrary? No, because she doesn't. Rather, it's because she doesn't accept the background principles that would give evidentiary status to certain observations. That's a very different thing than saying simply "there is no evidence". Thus I don't think the "no evidence" objection has as much force as many people think.

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Old 01-22-2003, 05:45 PM   #54
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Kenny is absolutely right in saying that some beliefs are properly basic with respect to warrant, which is a fancy way of saying that it is rational to believe them even though there is no evidence for them. And he’s identified some of them, such as the belief that memory is in general a reasonably reliable guide to one’s own past experiences. There is clearly no way to justify this belief (in terms of evidence) which does not depend on the assumption that memory is a reasonably reliable guide to one’s past experiences.
Memory that forms a consistent model of the past and allows future predictions is evidence of its reliability. If you believe that the reliability of memory must be assumed and that there is no evidence for its reliability, do you also believe that there is no evidence for faulty memory? Certainly if memory is ASSUMED reliable, there is nothing that should cause that to be questioned - it's axiomic.

Similarly with inductive reasoning. Do you believe there is no evidence to indicate that some forms of reasoning (random generation of conclusions for example) are not reliable? Inductive reasoning is used because it works (in many domains familiar to us). It's not just some random assumption that is continually made without any evidence supporting its use.
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Old 01-22-2003, 07:20 PM   #55
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Originally posted by bd-from-kg
[B]Oxymoron:

You’re missing the point entirely. Kenny is not arguing for skepticism.
Thank you for pointing that out.

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K:

Kenny is absolutely right in saying that some beliefs are properly basic with respect to warrant, which is a fancy way of saying that it is rational to believe them even though there is no evidence for them. And he’s identified some of them, such as the belief that memory is in general a reasonably reliable guide to one’s own past experiences. There is clearly no way to justify this belief (in terms of evidence) which does not depend on the assumption that memory is a reasonably reliable guide to one’s past experiences. The general reliability of induction is another. There are a good many others.
Thanks once again. Though the dogma that all beliefs require evidence to be considered rational is cherished by many atheists, it is provably false.

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Here’s what seems to me to be the fatal objection to this criterion.

Some of the other beings are designed so that the beliefs they are predisposed to are true, and their cognitive faculties are so designed that other beliefs they form are reliably true, but not because these beliefs are formed by making rational inferences from the evidence. Rather, they are formed through processes that the creators know in advance (from their knowledge of how the world “really is”) will just happen in this world to produce true beliefs a high percentage of the time, although they would fail miserably to do so in most other worlds that do not share the idiosyncrasies of this one….

Now we can all agree that the beliefs of the Type U beings (even the occasional true ones) do not have warrant. But what about those of Type RN? Their beliefs are formed through the proper functioning of their cognitive faculties which are part of a well designed plan aimed at the production of true beliefs in the type of environment in which those cognitive faculties were designed to function, etc. Yet it seems clear that their beliefs are not warranted, because they were formed in a nonrational manner.
An interesting and original objection – I have not seen any like it in any of the literature I’ve encountered. However, I think it fails. It all turns on whether or not the belief forming processes of RN type beings can genuinely be classified as non-rational. I would argue that if the belief forming processes of RN beings have a high objective probability of producing true beliefs in the cognitive environment in which they find themselves, then they are rational, at least with respect to that particular cognitive environment.

You did not exactly specify what you meant by the term ‘rational’ with respect to the belief forming processes of the RN beings. The one clue you did give was your statement to the effect that the belief forming processes of the RN beings “just happen in this world to produce true beliefs a high percentage of the time, although they would fail miserably to do so in most other worlds that do not share the idiosyncrasies of this one.” I take it from this comment that what you may have in mind when you apply the term ‘rational’ to belief forming processes, is to designate a set of processes that tend to produce true beliefs not only in the possible world in which these agents find themselves, but also across the vast majority of all possible worlds. By way of response, I would argue that, by this criterion, human beings themselves could be classified as RN beings, at least with respect to many of our belief forming processes, in which case our beliefs would also not be warranted if your analysis is correct.

Many of the belief forming processes of human beings would likely not produce a high percentage of true beliefs across all possible worlds. For instance, the philosopher Hilary Kornblith, in his essay, “Naturalist Epistemology and Its Critics,” cites a study which shows that “human beings have a natural tendency to draw conclusions about a population of objects on the basis of extremely small samples, indeed, often on the basis of a single case.” This tendency violates the statistical rule of making inferences from appropriately large sample sizes and thus the authors of this study argue this means that human beings are naturally inclined to reason poorly. Kornblith, however, believes this conclusion to be mistaken. The natural environment in which human beings find themselves is such that it displays a great deal of repetitiveness. Consequently, according to Kornblith, “we ought to be asking, not whether [our tendency to make hasty generalizations] would work well in any possible environment, but whether it works well in the environments in which human beings tend to be found.” In this instance, Kornblith believes this inferential tendency on the part of human beings does work well in the type of environment in which humans find themselves such that there is nothing irrational in human beings forming their beliefs in this way in most instances.

This one of the great strengths of externalism, in my opinion. It draws attention, not to the processes by which some ideally rational agent might form its beliefs in all possible worlds, but to the manner in which beliefs are actually formed by human beings in this world and to the extent to which they can be trusted to yield reliable conclusions, not in any possible world, but in this world. Human cognitive processes were not adapted to suit all possible worlds; they were adapted to suit the world in which human beings find themselves. One need not even cite any studies concerning a human tendency of violating basic statistical rules of inference to make this point. Human reliance on inductive reasoning, our rejection of grue-like predicates, our tendency to believe in the existence of other minds – all of these belief forming mechanisms are likely to produce false beliefs most of the time in vast numbers of possible worlds. That is irrelevant to whether or not our beliefs are rational and warranted, however, because the question we are concerned with is whether or not our belief forming processes tend to form true beliefs in this world. If they do, then we can rely upon them, regardless of whether or not they would work well in other possible worlds.

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What about the Type RR beings? Surely their beliefs are warranted? Well, even that’s not clear. It’s arguable that they also have true beliefs only by virtue of the lucky chance that true beliefs were more useful to their designers than false ones, not because the designers valued true beliefs per se.
Well, if our cognitive processes were conditioned by an unconscious evolutionary process (as metaphysical naturalists believe), then if our belief forming processes are reliable it is due solely to the lucky chance that holding true beliefs happened to be more conducive to our survival than holding false ones. But, regardless, as long as the cognitive processes of the RR beings are genuinely aimed at the production of true beliefs and are reliable, then I think that the motives of the designers are irrelevant.

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And they have no way of telling that they are of Type RR. After all, so far as the Type U and RN beings can tell, they’re of Type RR too.
If the RR beings were to become aware that their designers had a tendency to produce numerous beings with unreliable cognitive faculties, then that might furnish these beings with a sufficient defeater for the proposition that their belief forming mechanisms are reliable which in turn would destroy the initial warrant they might otherwise enjoy for their beliefs (likewise, if it could be successfully argued that unguided evolution has a high probability of producing beings with unreliable cognitive faculties, that might destroy the warrant that a metaphysical naturalist might otherwise enjoy for her beliefs). Otherwise, these beings are warranted in trusting their cognitive faculties in a properly basic manner just as we are.

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On the other hand, it can be argued that, whatever the reasons behind the designers’ decision to give them rational (and therefore reliable) cognitive faculties, the fact is that they did so, and by doing so gave them the capability of forming warranted beliefs. But this applies only to the beliefs formed through these rational processes; it would still seem that the beliefs they have merely because they have been designed to be predisposed to them are not warranted, even though (because it happens to be in their creators’ interests) they are all true.
As long as these belief forming mechanisms are reliable, aimed at the production of true beliefs, and there are no sufficient defeaters for them, then it does not matter whether their beliefs were inferentially obtained or the result of a basic predisposition to believe in them – they are still warranted. Our belief in other minds is a likely candidate for a belief which we have a basic predisposition towards but one which we can not properly infer via evidential reasoning.

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But regardless of the status of the beliefs of the Type RR beings, it seems clear that the beliefs of the Type RN beings do not have warrant, even though they meet Plantinga’s criterion. This would seem to smash his criterion for warranted beliefs to smithereens.
Since we, by your criteria, are likely RN type beings, if your analysis smashes Plantinga’s criterion for warranted beliefs, it also smashes our claim to be rational beings. Give those options, I prefer to leave Plantinga intact.

God Bless,
Kenny

P.S. SRB, I have not forgotten you. I will try to get to your post soon.
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Old 01-22-2003, 08:08 PM   #56
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Thanks once again. Though the dogma that all beliefs require evidence to be considered rational is cherished by many atheists, it is provably false.
If that's the case, why don't you just post your proof and be done with it? Why are we going back and forth with arguments when a proof exists?

Supporting evidence and lack of contradicting evidence can obviously make a belief rational (any objections?). I'd still like to know what else can make a belief rational. You seemed to imply that being correct makes a belief rational.

Let me give you a hypothetical.

Let's say that a person believes beyond the shadow of a doubt that Oakland is going to win on Sunday because Oakland and Raiders each have the same number of letters (and vowels). Now this person bets everything on Oakland knowing it's a guaranteed win. If Oakland does win, does that make the belief rational? If so, we're working with entirely different definitions of rational. If not, what separates this example from any other belief for which there is absolutely no supporting evidence?
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Old 01-23-2003, 08:13 AM   #57
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Originally posted by Kuyper
Whether or not that particular understanding of the Christian theology is correct is a matter of considerable debate among theologians. Further, the Christianity makes clear that the choice for heaven or hell is clearly in OUR hands. That's what free will is all about. Scripture makes clear that it is NOT God's will that any should experience hell. The message of all of scripture is God's great love for human beings. Why should we label God a tyrant if we reap what we sow? He makes clear what the choices are, what the consequences are and then leaves it up to us.
You DID NOT even address the stated argument! Free will is not at issue here. GROSSLY DISPROPORTIONATE reward/punishment is! And SINCE WHEN are having a single life to live, and the reward of heaven and the punishment of hell "matters of considerable debate among the xtian faithful?
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The characteristic of omnipresence simply means God is not bound by the limits of space. That does not entail that he necessarily has to be 'everywhere' at once all the time. He can be wherever he chooses to be. Further, there's no reason why he couldn't choose to not be in a particular place--hell being one example. Part of Christian doctrine teaches that when Christ died on the cross he did, in fact, descend into hell. If that's true, then it would seam to indicate that God can indeed pick and choose his spaces. His omniscience means he can pick his choose his time as well.
omnipresent

\Om`ni*pres"ent\, a. [Omni- + present: cf.F. omnipr['e]sent.] Present in all places at the same time; ubiquitous; as, the omnipresent Jehovah. --Prior.

Webster refutes your artful dodge. You can't wish this argument away by redefining words!
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This is little more than a re-statement of the age old "why doesn't God answer all prayers" concern. It might be that our understanding of prayer is misguided. It might also be that God does answer our prayers, just not in accordance with our expectations. I sometimes think that on this point people confuse magic with mystery. They're two very different things. Nowhere does Christian doctrine teach that God is going to magically remove us from all dangers and threats. What Christianity does teach is that in all circumstances we face on this earth God will be with us. And ultimately, God will prevail, and thus so will those who believe.
...not so! It is an argument against the expectation that god answers ANY prayers!! ...but your (non)response IS just the old "God works in mysterious ways" apology. A god that has ignored the desperate prayers of tens of millions of innocents for their very lives isn't worthy of worship! Nor does realization of such a failure engender a reasonable, much less rational expectation that ANY prayer will be answered. Again, I find nothing but theistic apologies in your words.
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Well, the one obvious point to be made here is that we have not one shred of proof or evidence of life existing anywhere else in the universe (the Raelians notwithstanding!). But even if it did, so what? Christian doctrine, based on scripture, teaches only how God revealed himself to us on this planet. How he might choose to reveal himself to other beings of His creation is not our concern....
Another evasion! My argument clearly considered BOTH possibilities (either there IS other sentient life in the universe, or there isn't) and the objections subsequent to each one. If we are alone, god went to a lot of unnecessary work just to create life on earth. On the other, if there is sentient life out there, it is virtually certain that some are millions (or billions) of years more evolved than humans (Being only 1% out of phase with earth evloution = 45 million years of evolution), beings that humans would probably consider as gods themselves. At the very least, the net result of direct contact with such beings, theologically speaking, would be a near universal abandonment of the gods of earth's religions in favor of these beings or of their gods (presuming they had any). Why? because such an event would destroy in the minds of most of the faithful the "special" (superior) position in creation granted us by our professed gods. (See response to next point for an expansion of this point.)

But I digress. You simply evaded the whole issue.
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First to your comment that one must concede that evolution is a "fact rather than a theory", you seem to be confusing on the meaning of these terms in science. No evolutionary biologist I know of would ever say that evolution or any other theory of science is a fact. That is not a scientific way of putting it. Rather they might say that the evidence supporting this or that conclusion is strong, or over-whelming, or something along those lines. Science is ever in the business of refuting theories and hypotheses. Theories once thought iron clad give way to new explanations as new data comes to light. You might read Thomas Khun's "The Structure of Scientific Revolutions" to gain better insight into that. I would also recommend "Conjectures and Refutations" by Sir Karl Popper.
Evolution IS a fact!!! The only arguments that remain are over DETAILS of the process! The only xtian group still denying the FACT of evolution is the fundies (who are still clinging to the Genesis creation). Your digression evades the point of the argument.

AGAIN, I offered BOTH choices (either evolution happened or it didn't). and argued that EITHER choice brings with it a set of conflicts with the dominant xtian doctrines. (I presumed that you weren't a creationist, so I didn't see the need to specify the counterevidence to that myth.). I focused on the threats evolution in any form brings to xtain theology. The most fundamental of these is the "specialness" of humanity in creation (i.e. only humans have souls), rationalized by the recognition that our sentience has given us dominion over the animals (though theists credit god with this gift of dominion). I pointed to the threat that THIS concept is what actually puts evolution permanently at odds with theology. What was that argument? It was: Implicit in acceptance of evolution is the inevitability that humanity will be replaced by a more evolved sentient species, successfully challenging man's claim to being the crown of god's creation. You totally failed to grasp this...or you chose not to address it. For that reason, your "second" and "third" responses are not germane to my point.
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Why? For this argument to hold you need to define what you mean by "perfect". Perfect in what sense? And why is that notion of perfection the correct one and not some other notion?
And finally, in order for that argument to hold, you'd have to know fully what God's intentions were so as to guage whether or not the creation exhibits the intended perfection. It's odd that you would use what is essentially a theological argument (albeit it a negative one) to try and disprove God's existence.
Why? One accepted method to disprove a postulation is to demonstrate how that postulation leads to an absurdity. Hence a 1% success ratio is not compatible with a "perfect" creator presumes (for argument sake) the validity of the xtian affirmation of the perfection of god (do you deny this affirmation?).
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I don't see how that logic even follows. In order for that contention to be true, you'd have to show an understanding of what a God would have intended to reveal and how he would have to reveal it. How would you come by that knowledge in order to pass the judgment that it hasn't taken place?
Let me turn the question around. In what way do you (as a xtian) perceive god to be imperfect? I cannot reconcile perfection (or anything close to it) from a "creation" standpoint for an omnipotent god to require over threee billion years of evolutionary progress to produce a sentient species, while along the way creating tens of millions of species that failed to endure (99% of them). If that truly DOES represent god's perfect creation, then xtians don't have a CLUE who god is or what he is about (i.e. you are deluding yourselves), or god didn't play any part in (the fact of or the process of) evolution (i.e. you are deluding yourselves).

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by capnkirk
You may not consider that evidence, but I sure do! And to wish all these objections away in order to maintain theistic belief is patently IRRATIONAL.

by Kuyper
Well, as you can see, one does not need to "wish" these objections away. There are prefectly sound responses to all of them. You seem to think these objections are all self-evident, slam dunk arguments, but I hope you can now see that they are not.
Since you FAILED to respond to the SALIENT point in any of my evidences, I remain utterly unconvinced. You will have to do a lot better than that. One must presume that either you can't see the INHERENT threat to xtian theism present in each argument...or you WON'T.

To bring this back to the original arugment, here is the quote:
Quote:
Originally posted by Kuyper
....Now, if the evidence, as you put it, "mitigates against" the belief in question, and one still holds it in the face of the discomfirming evidence, then perhaps we could say the belief is irrational.

But is theistic belief of this kind? I don't think so.
I think that the preceding dialog fully illustrates my argument that theistic belief IS of the kind that "holds in the face of disconfirming evidence". I think that it also demonstrates HOW theistic belief endeavors to accomplish this feat.

I rest my case.
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Old 01-23-2003, 08:27 AM   #58
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Originally posted by Kuyper
Sorry, Phil, but I'm not seeing your logic here. If a belief is true, how is it irrational? That just doesn't make sense to me.
I'm not making a logical argument. I'm just stating that, if a prior unevidenced belief (irrational) is later confirmed, it does not make the prior belief rational in hindsight. An extreme example: suppose I believe that at some point in the next 18 months, the earth will stop rotating for 38 seconds. I currently have no evidence for the truth of that belief, thus it is irrational. If, sometime within the next 18 months, the earth stops rotating for 38 seconds, that does not mean the prior belief was rational in hindsight.
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Old 01-23-2003, 08:41 AM   #59
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Default Re: Must theistic belief have evidence to rational?

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Originally posted by Kuyper
What started this ball rolling was the post that said, in effect, beliefs without evidence are irrational. I questioned that assumption and asked "why?" What makes that true?
Kuyper,
Is the belief in Allah over God rational? Is the belief in the truth of the Koran over the Bible rational? Is the belief in invisible pink unicorns who live in my backyard rational? Is the belief in Santa Claus rational?
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Old 01-23-2003, 09:17 AM   #60
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Originally posted by Kuyper
If the dispute really were about evidence (or the lack thereof) then I might ask what 'evidence' you posses that a universe could exist independant of being created. Of course no one has any such evidence (speculative hypothesis about multi-verses, bubble universes and the like are NOT evidence of anything). But if you don't have evidence that the universe can exist independant of being created then the existence of the universe would be HUGH evidence for a creator.
First: As astronomers and physicists study ever-more-distant objects, they are observing them as they were long ago. Contemporary astronomy regularly observes objects as they were 10-12 billion years ago, so the nature of the universe from that point forward IS directly observable!

Second: From those observations, the extension of observed phenomena back towards the instant of "creation" (I use that word advisedly here because of all the baggage that it carries with it, but out of necessity, because we have no more descriptive word for it.) can be reasonably postulated. We don't have to observe the instant of creation to be able to predict major features of it, and to thereby predict (contemporarily) unobserved (but observable) residual evidences. Later observations of the predicted residual attribute would thereby be considered confirming "evidence" of the accuracy of the model. Such predictions and confirmations DO exist. In fact two scientists conducting tests having nothing to do with cosmology (hence, no vested interest in any particular outcome) were awarded a Nobel Prize for detecting just such a residue (in 1965). There are many more such examples since.

Third: The relativistic effect of mass on spacetime is well understood. The relativistic effect of same at the instant of creation was infinite. This is to say that there was no "before" the Big Bang (BB). Since causality is a time-dependent entity, cause/effect relationship also is meaningless. Ergo: All arguments arising out of either of these concepts are inapplicable on the far side of the BB event. The creator/creation relationship dissolves under the light of these "knowns", in that it declares any properties of any reality external to or not subsequent to the BB are unknowable, period.
Quote:
But of course, a non-thiest would reject that conclusion out of hand. Why? Because she has evidence to the contrary? No, because she doesn't. Rather, it's because she doesn't accept the background principles that would give evidentiary status to certain observations. That's a very different thing than saying simply "there is no evidence". Thus I don't think the "no evidence" objection has as much force as many people think.
The preceding analysis emphatically refutes your contention that non-thiests do not have any evidence as to the nature of the BB event that do not depend on an assumption of god. It also refutes your "out-of-hand" claim.

Your assertions here are a classic example of transferrance. The qualities you project on non-theists: "rejection out of hand", "not accepting the background principles that would give evidentiary status" are qualities absolutely necessary to the maintenance of theistic belief, as demonstrated in my immediately preceding post to you.
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