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Old 03-12-2003, 04:09 PM   #31
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Quote:
Originally posted by spurly
Maybe, just maybe, God was saying that the women who did not participate in that were okay not to slaughter. As far as the little kids go, I will think about that some more.

Kevin [/B]
I'm not trying to be facetious. I really do respect believers for the most part. But you should think about that some more. It's horrific savagery by any standard, and it's savages like these who basically wrote the Bible.
Why would one choose to believe and consider holy the works of those who've committed acts of the greatest cruelty? And at the behest of their "god" no less.
Like I said, I respect everyone's right to believe as they choose. I hope I'm not coming across as a jerk.
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Old 03-13-2003, 06:38 PM   #32
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*bump*
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Old 03-13-2003, 07:00 PM   #33
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Lauri,

I have gone back and looked at this passage of Scripture from beginning to end, also taking into account Numbers 25 - which was the precursor to this passage.

In Numbers 25 we find that the Midianite women were instrumental in leading the Israelite men astray to worship Baal. Part of worshipping Baal including sexual acts with temple prostitutes. (Unfortunately many people today would follow this religion if they got to have an orgy every time they worshipped God. This religion definitely played to the perverted nature of fallen mankind).

Because of this sin, over 24,000 Israelites died in a plague sent by God. The plagued was stopped when Eleazar penned an Israelite man and a Midianite woman to the ground, while they were making love, with his spear.

When we get to Numbers 31 we find a God who is very angry that his people were led astray by the priestesses of Baal. So what does he do - execute his justice.

When Moses found out that these people had been left alive, he was angry. His response was, "They were the ones who followed Balaam's advice and were the means of turning the Israelites away from the Lord in what happened at Peor, so that a plague struck the Lord's people. Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man [i.e. who has the possibility of being a temple priestess or having participated in the rite at the temple], but save for yourself every girl who has not slept with a man[those who have not participated in the temple orgies that led the Israelites astray]." [brackets mine] I believe this is the passage you are referring to.

Why did Moses command this? I don't know. My guess would be that because these women were pure, they did not need to die. Maybe boys participated in these rites at a young age - I don't know.

But I do know this. When God passes judgment, his judgment is just. He know what he is doing better than we ever could. He was attempting to keep a people pure, so that he could eventually bring the Messiah through them, and so that he could live among them. Because of that, justice was called for.

I guess that's all the answers I have for now. I know this does not satisfy your question, but I am no theologian. I can only give you what I know.

I appreciate conversing with you.

Kevin
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Old 03-13-2003, 07:16 PM   #34
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Quick clarification- God kills all males- even the babies- because they hold "evil seeds". All through the OT you see that God curses not only the man, but a few generations of his decendants(this is even in the 10 commandments).

The OT God, not being well versed in modern biology, thinks that men pass down their seed only. The womans "evil egg" was not known about so she was OK to live to be impregnated by the "good seeds".

You'd think that after a few mixed marriages they'd figure it out, but women were of such low status at the time in Gods eyes that it would be inconcievable.
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