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03-19-2002, 10:36 AM | #31 | |
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03-19-2002, 01:24 PM | #32 |
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Layman/Polycarp,
So do you guys maybe think that when Blomberg says, "inerrancy" (oops!--misspelled it earlier!), he actually means "infallibility," or the inability of the Bible to make theological errors? "Inerrancy" seems to be a stronger notion--the inability of the Bible to make errors of any kind. I personally don't know where Blomberg stands, and really don't care all that much (it's much more important to me whether his arguments are coherent on given individual issues). I note that he does, however, try to offer solutions to some of the difficult historical problems in the NT, such as the Quirinius contradiction (p. 216 and 338 n. 80). BTW, thanks for being welcoming and responding to my little post. I've been reading from these boards for awhile and I've liked a lot of what I've seen. I finally joined because I wanted to ask a few of my own questions and maybe add a few of my own observations to the threads around here (though nothing major--I am a student and I will be taking 22 units next quarter). So, thanx again and I hope this'll be fun and edifying! Sir Monkey |
03-20-2002, 06:30 AM | #33 | |||
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03-22-2002, 04:20 PM | #34 | |||
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I think that if Blomberg describes himself as an inerrantist he means something different than when McDowell calls himself an inerrantist. Quote:
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Feel free to email me anytime about anything. [ March 22, 2002: Message edited by: Layman ]</p> |
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