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Old 05-12-2002, 12:27 AM   #21
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from Philechat:
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philechat Cool...Dave.
The famous circular argument:
"God exists."
"How do you know?"
"The Bible says so."
"How do you know the Bible is true?"
"The Bible is the word of God."

Note that Allah (PBUH) stated similar things in the Koran.

Hmmm...something fishy is going on...

By the way I am not exactly pleased with the aesthetic taste of the Bible...for some reason Greek tragedies and Japanese novels seem more "divinely inspired" than that Holy Book everyone raves about.
Dave: hmmmm...I wasn't aware that the Bible was supposed to be either aesthetically pleasing or entertaining.

In any case, I am not at all embarrassed by the fact that God is proven circularly. Everyone's worldview must start somewhere. But I argue that one MUST start with God otherwise one cannot come to any knowledge whatsoever. His existence is the necessary precondition for logic, morality, or any form of knowledge.

The Quran's Allah cannot possibly exist since Allah is described as unknowable. Thus, the Quran cannot even be what it claims to be - Allah's self-revelation. It is a self-refuting worldview.

Automaton

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Fine, if logic doesn't apply to God, or God's properties, then God both exists and doesn't exist, is both good and evil, and is both all-powerful and all-weak. No coherent thing could ever be said about God, one might as well talk of the Omnipurple Kwagilax. Thank you, by denying God logic, you have saved us the trouble of arguing against the unconcept of it/non-it, and have given everyone reason to be practical atheists.
Dave: hmmm...don't recall saying or implying that "logic doesn't apply to God." My above post merely stressed that one ought not confuse the categories of logic and power.

Dave Gadbois
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Old 05-12-2002, 03:58 AM   #22
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Mentioned before? I am unaware of this discussion, could you give me a link?
It wasn't a brilliant discussion.. believe me I'll just restate the principles here if that's alright.

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Wow, you gave that an odd wording. One does not demonstrate that a thing is circular, you do it with arguments and definitions. If the concept of "something" is circular, then that thing a priori lacks a meaningful concept, and like a square circle, cannot exist.
Why is it odd? Are definitions, arguements and concepts not 'things' or rather entities in space and time?

Anyway, quick definition of demonstrate:

Quote:
1. To show clearly and deliberately; manifest: demonstrated her skill as a gymnast; demonstrate affection by hugging.
2. To show to be true by reasoning or adducing evidence; prove: demonstrate a proposition.
3. To present by experiments, examples, or practical application; explain and illustrate: demonstrated the laws of physics with laboratory equipment.
4. To show the use of (an article) to a prospective buyer: The salesperson plugged in and demonstrated the vacuum cleaner.
Do you agree that to present a logical arguement is seeking to demonstrate the validity of a proposition.

I agree that my wording was clumsy.. it was late. Apologies, allow me to reiterate.

To demonstrate that a proposition is founded upon circular logic cannot be taken as proof that the proposition is false a priori.

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Well...
Gödel showed that within a rigidly logical system such as Russell and Whitehead had developed for arithmetic, propositions can be formulated that are undecidable or undemonstrable within the axioms of the system. That is, within the system, there exist certain clear-cut statements that can neither be proved or disproved. Hence one cannot, using the usual methods, be certain that the axioms of arithmetic will not lead to contradictions ... It appears to foredoom hope of mathematical certitude through use of the obvious methods. Perhaps doomed also, as a result, is the ideal of science - to devise a set of axioms from which all phenomena of the external world can be deduced.
- Boyer, History of Mathematics
Perhaps that is why, in every day life, people are not rigidly logical and give credence to intuition and gut instinct.

It's good to know that logic is not all it is often cracked up to be.

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If this is not a challenge to omniscience, I don't know what is!
Only if one presupposes that rigid logic is the only means of establishing truth or knowledge.

Isn't our ability to know limited to our sense perceptions and how much we are able to understand through them? Because we can't test everything empirically we must build up logical rules in the hope that they lead us closer to truth. Isn't this what the above statement is about?

Is knowing through logical deduction the same as knowing through experience and which would apply to God if he existed?

Quote:
I mentioned a square circle as an example of something that is logically impossible, not as an example of X.
No, I took the example of square circle and applied it to the term X. I wasn't suggesting that this is what you were doing. As you've stated below, X represents an impossible action because it is logically impossible. Above you've said that a square circle is logically impossible and so it seemed appropriate to apply the example to X.

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I thought I reasonably clearly stated that X is an action that God cannot do because God cannot do the logically impossible and for God to do something counter to his "being", as some theists put it, would be logically impossible. I was showing that this rationalization is circular.
This may be so.. but does this mean that the conclusion is false or simply unreliable?

Isn't something logically impossible because it is actually impossible?

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Because circular definitions are meaningless.
Circular definitions are repetitious but not meaningless. They don't add any new information.

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Will God ever do evil? No, because God's ultimite desire, as you have described it, is to do good. Can God go against his ultimite desire? No, and as such, God's omnipotence is limited by his desires... or his being... and this leads us right back to where we started.
Omnipotence is a statement concerning God's abilities. There is a big difference between saying that God will never do something and God is incapable of doing something.

If I have two choices, x and y and I choose x, does this mean that I am therefore incapable of doing y (I lack the power to do it)?

[ May 12, 2002: Message edited by: E_muse ]</p>
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Old 05-12-2002, 05:35 AM   #23
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sikh:
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God is not defined as omnibelevolent. All God can be defined as is a supernatural creator, if you were to define God at all, to universally define most (and all of the) Gods (that I know of). You are merely constructing a strawman.
Your God is an undefinable being, indistinguishable from a space alien? How convenient. I am not dealing with some ineffable concept, rather the God of classical theism, which deals with the God of Christians, Jews, Muslims and many other religious denominations.
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You would be better off trying to deconstruct a specific brand of a Christian God. But even then you'de get swat down by something you might have heard called free-will
Elaborate. Why does free-will have anything to do with my argument?
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This existence of a square circle is not 'against God's will' or in opposition to 'God's omnipotency', rather it is to the contrary.
Do you realise you have just given your God a definition over and above the one you claim is the absolute maximum you can define it as? I don't recall you originally saying omniscience and logical contradiction were a part of your supposedly undefinable concept. What do you mean by the "existence of a square circle"? Don't you know such a thing could never exist, as the properties of a square are directly in opposition to a circle, and vice versa?
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The set attributes of a creation are in accordance of an omniscient creator. It is the intent of the creator, rather than an unseen affect of a creator.
What does this even mean?
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From <a href="http://www.infidels.org/news/atheism/logic.html:" target="_blank">http://www.infidels.org/news/atheism/logic.html:</a> Firstly, logical reasoning is not an absolute law which governs the universe. Many times in the past, people have concluded that because something is logically impossible (given the science of the day), it must be impossible, period. It was also believed at one time that Euclidean geometry was a universal law; it is, after all, logically consistent. Again, we now know that the rules of Euclidean geometry are not universal.
If a website said it, it MUST be true. Most atheists (and even theists) here would contend this notion, I believe.

[ May 12, 2002: Message edited by: Automaton ]</p>
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Old 05-12-2002, 05:53 AM   #24
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DaveJes1979:
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hmmm...don't recall saying or implying that "logic doesn't apply to God." My above post merely stressed that one ought not confuse the categories of logic and power.
If one of the ultimite attributes of God is his ultimite power, and logic doesn't apply to this power, it necessarily follows that logic doesn't apply to God.
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Old 05-12-2002, 06:16 AM   #25
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DaveJes1979:

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In any case, I am not at all embarrassed by the fact that God is proven circularly. Everyone's worldview must start somewhere. But I argue that one MUST start with God otherwise one cannot come to any knowledge whatsoever. His existence is the necessary precondition for logic, morality, or any form of knowledge.
Very weak argument. Platonism had been refuted again and agian by subsequent philosophers. And just by examining world cultures one finds that the Christian God is not needed with the creation of culture, knowledge, and morality in the majority of the cases. (ever heard of Confucius, the Buddha, Aristotle, Egyptian and Mayan civilization...etc)

Let's not use the famous western ethnocentrism when discussing cultural knowledge, okay?

[ May 12, 2002: Message edited by: philechat ]</p>
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Old 05-12-2002, 06:47 AM   #26
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E_Muse:
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It wasn't a brilliant discussion.. believe me I'll just restate the principles here if that's alright.
Fair enough.
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Why is it odd? Are definitions, arguements and concepts not 'things' or rather entities in space and time?
Well, you could say they exist as a electrochemical states in the brain, but an electrochemical state that creates the idea is obviously not the same as the idea, and thus at best they are only epiphenominal on spacetime events.
Quote:
Anyway, quick definition of demonstrate:
  • 2. To show to be true by reasoning or adducing evidence; prove: demonstrate a proposition.
Do you agree that to present a logical arguement is seeking to demonstrate the validity of a proposition.
Yes, alright. What relevance does this have?
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To demonstrate that a proposition is founded upon circular logic cannot be taken as proof that the proposition is false a priori.
Yes it is, a proposition is only a proposition if it has meaning. Circular definitions lack meaning.
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Perhaps that is why, in every day life, people are not rigidly logical and give credence to intuition and gut instinct.
I don't think has anything to do with incompleteness theorems, but more to do with the fact of our evolutionary past as creatures of nearly pure instinct.
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It's good to know that logic is not all it is often cracked up to be.
Logic is still the same useful tool it always was, it's simply impossible to know all knowledge about all systems, the very thing omniscience requires.
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Only if one presupposes that rigid logic is the only means of establishing truth or knowledge.
If you think one can "know" something without establishing its logical factuality, the burden of proof is on your shoulders to show that this means of knowledge exists.
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Isn't our ability to know limited to our sense perceptions and how much we are able to understand through them? Because we can't test everything empirically we must build up logical rules in the hope that they lead us closer to truth. Isn't this what the above statement is about?
The above statement refers to the incompleteness of axiomatic logic placing limitations on inductive reasoning, not the other way around.
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Is knowing through logical deduction the same as knowing through experience and which would apply to God if he existed?
Huh?
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No, I took the example of square circle and applied it to the term X. I wasn't suggesting that this is what you were doing. As you've stated below, X represents an impossible action because it is logically impossible. Above you've said that a square circle is logically impossible and so it seemed appropriate to apply the example to X.
X represents an action that is impossible because what God does is limited by his being (I was showing this is circular however). Creating a square circle is not an example of this, because square circles are merely logically impossible, not something said to be impossible because it conflicts with God's being.
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This may be so.. but does this mean that the conclusion is false or simply unreliable?
What conclusion?
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Isn't something logically impossible because it is actually impossible?
No...
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Circular definitions are repetitious but not meaningless. They don't add any new information.
By Jove, I think he's nearly got it! When is a meaning not a meaning? When it contains zero information. Hence, meaningless.
Quote:
Omnipotence is a statement concerning God's abilities. There is a big difference between saying that God will never do something and God is incapable of doing something.

If I have two choices, x and y and I choose x, does this mean that I am therefore incapable of doing y (I lack the power to do it)?
But what if your ultimite desire was to do x. Would you have really had any choice? Would you have gone against your ultimite desire and chosen x?

BTW, sorry if not much of this recent post makes sense, I'm tired and sick at the moment.
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Old 05-12-2002, 12:33 PM   #27
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Originally posted by Automaton:
Your God is an undefinable being, indistinguishable from a space alien? How convenient.
Once again, you aren't comprehending what has presented. I never said this. I said that if you were to make a case against GOD, then this is the lowest common denominator that pertains to Gods. If you want to disprove GOD, then you have to disprove THIS, God's supernatural existence.

Quote:
Originally posted by Automaton:
I am not dealing with some ineffable concept, rather the God of classical theism, which deals with the God of Christians, Jews, Muslims and many other religious denominations.
No, this is not classical, this is just the theism that you may be more familiar with. If you want to try to disprove a certain brand of a God of a certain religion of a certain denomination, then feel free to. If you want to disprove God, then don't use a certain brand of God to disprove ALL Gods.

Quote:
Originally posted by Automaton:
Do you realise you have just given your God a definition over and above the one you claim is the absolute maximum you can define it as? I don't recall you originally saying omniscience and logical contradiction were a part of your supposedly undefinable concept. What do you mean by the "existence of a square circle"? Don't you know such a thing could never exist, as the properties of a square are directly in opposition to a circle, and vice versa?
Once again you fail to understand what I have presented you. I never once told you any information that pertains to MY God.

Quote:
Originally posted by Automaton:
If a website said it, it MUST be true. Most atheists (and even theists) here would contend this notion, I believe.
I merely gave that quote to give you some insight, moreover, if you are in opposition to that quote, feel free to tell me its faults.

Peace, Mutton. ~Your friendly fifteen year old neighborhood Sikh.
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Old 05-12-2002, 10:47 PM   #28
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automaton said:

Quote:
If one of the ultimite attributes of God is his ultimite power, and logic doesn't apply to this power, it necessarily follows that logic doesn't apply to God.
Dave: I didn't say that "logic doesn't apply to power." Once again, I said that power and logic are two distinct (but not completely unrelated) philisophical domains.

philechat


Quote:
Very weak argument. Platonism had been refuted again and agian by subsequent philosophers. And just by examining world cultures one finds that the Christian God is not needed with the creation of culture, knowledge, and morality in the majority of the cases. (ever heard of Confucius, the Buddha, Aristotle, Egyptian and Mayan civilization...etc)
Dave: I don't recall appealing to Platonism. You can criticize it all you want. And you are confusing the idea that "the Christian God is not needed" with the fact that certain cultures don't ACKNOWLEDGE the Christian God.

Quote:
Let's not use the famous western ethnocentrism when discussing cultural knowledge, okay?
Dave: I would criticize ANY worldview - whether you label it distinctively "western" or otherwise, that does not ground its knowledge in the One True God. I believe that these philosophies and distorted forms of theism fall just as much as "western" atheism does. My challenge for them remains the same, as I have challenged atheists in here. How does their worldview, non-arbitrarily account for moral norms?

Dave Gadbois

[ May 12, 2002: Message edited by: DaveJes1979 ]</p>
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Old 05-12-2002, 11:09 PM   #29
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Ah, another presuppositionalist! Glad to make your acquaintance, DaveJes, 1979!

Quote:
DaveJes wrote: How does their worldview, non-arbitrarily account for moral norms?
Simple and quick. <a href="http://iidb.org/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic&f=21&t=000134" target="_blank">Existential phenomenology.</a>
~WiGGiN~

[ May 13, 2002: Message edited by: Ender ]</p>
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Old 05-12-2002, 11:35 PM   #30
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Dave: I didn't say that "logic doesn't apply to power." Once again, I said that power and logic are two distinct (but not completely unrelated) philisophical domains.
What does "distinct but not completely unrelated" even mean? How can something be of any degree "distinct" from logic? It may surprise you to know that there are no square circles, no amount of "power" will negate this.
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