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05-09-2002, 02:59 AM | #11 | |||
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Ah, the glory of the Cosmological argument! <img src="graemlins/notworthy.gif" border="0" alt="[Not Worthy]" />
Well, not quite... but still I don't think the Cosmological argument is quite as awful and flawed as some here make out. It may not be conclusive but it should hopefully make the reader pause and wonder for a moment. Quote:
However the author's point that this oft-heard objection is really a straw-man, is -I think- reasonable. Quote:
Of course, of interest here, perhaps, are the number of ad hoc explanations that must be pulled out of the bag to diminish the force of the theist's argument. Quote:
Assume there is an infinite temporal regress. Let the current event be 0. And past events be -1, -2, -3,... (lim -> -inf) Note that there is a one-to-one correspondence between any two sequential events. ie After -1 comes 0 and before 0 comes -1. For the current event to occur, all events prior to the current event must have already occured. For all events prior to the current event to have occured, the entire sequence -inf -> -1 must have been transversed. Is it ever possible to transverse the entire sequence backwards? (Starting at the current event, if we go backward in time, do we ever reach a beginning?) Answer: No. Otherwise it wouldn't be infinite, would it? Given the 1 to 1 correspondence, the sequence is exactly the same size whether it's tranversed forward or backward. Since the sequence can never be transerved backwards, it can never be transerved forwards. If the sequence cannot be transerved forwards then the current event can never occur. Leaving us with a contradiction and hence the falsity of our assumption. Tercel |
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05-09-2002, 03:10 AM | #12 | |||
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05-09-2002, 03:33 AM | #13 | |||
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You say: "By explaining the existence of every event in the chain is to explain the existence in the chain." I'm inclined to disagree. By "explaining" every event in terms of earlier parts of the chain, it seems to me that your "explanations" simply clapse when it comes to explaining the existence of the chain itself. Quote:
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05-09-2002, 04:05 AM | #14 | ||
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That’s the point, if God doesn’t change how can he respond, think or act? [quote]Originally posted by Tercel: Quote:
Indeed the whole idea of a necessary being is self refuting, because it is based one the idea that there are laws that require God to exist, in which case where did these requiring laws originate from? It’s a vicious circle (or a psychotic sphere if you so prefer ). Maybe the idea of necessary as we conceive it is simply plain wrong. And the self-awareness thing… How could God have developed it without anything else to refer to? If he had nothing to compare himself with and determine that he was different he could not develop the idea of his individuality without some prior knowledge, which leads back to my “Mind of God” point. And doesn’t self-awareness imply at least some form of mechanism, and if so how can this exist without any form of spatial-temporal reference? And to claim otherwise is like saying that empty space (and something even less than that…) is self-aware… |
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05-09-2002, 05:26 AM | #15 | |
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Good post, Ender, but...
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05-09-2002, 06:11 AM | #16 | ||
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No matter how long we trace events backwards we will eventually reach a point where no prior events or set values exists.
Doesn't this imply that order can and must have come from complete chaos? The big question, I think is - can an event occur without any prior existance? Tercel... Quote:
There is a contradiction in your theory. First you claim that an infinite conscious being (an infinite consciousness, if you like) existed prior to big bang. And then you say that an infinite (without begining) sequence is not possible since it would be impossible to pinpoint and trace a single event. The event would never occur. Quote:
If god had a thought, then that would count as an event within his own existence. If god had a "first thought" then what triggered it? We get this sequence (pretty rough). Nothing, God is static (no events) -> A random thought occurs in god's "mind" (first event) -> The random thought evolves into a design based on possible (X) attributes-> The big bang is created out of zero energy caused by the random thought -> The energy forms based on the "design" to the universe we know today. or this sequence (also rough). Nothing (no events) -> A random event occur -> The big bang is created out of zero energy caused by the random event. -> The energy from the big bang evolves based on possible (Y) attributes into the universe we know today. Now, is there any difference between X and Y? and if so, why? This is probably all wrong, I would like for someone to perhaps elaborate it. |
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05-09-2002, 10:08 AM | #17 | |
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Tercel,
An interesting, ironic statement that you put: Quote:
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05-09-2002, 07:35 PM | #18 |
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Thanks Datheron, now I don't have to post what you just wrote.
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05-09-2002, 08:44 PM | #19 |
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There is no problem with the idea that the past is infinite. Supposing the series of past events to be structured like the natural numbers, this is just the view that, before each event, there was exactly one immediately preceding event. (We can individuate events to make this so; it isn't a thesis about the discreteness of time.)
Here's the important thing about this series of past events/instants: Every member of the series is at most finitely distant from the present. So the thesis that the past is infinite does not entail a completed infinity of events before the present. No element of the series is more than a finite number of instants from now; hence the past contains no instant -- no instant -- such that traversing the "distance" between that event and the present requires completing an infinity. [ May 09, 2002: Message edited by: Clutch ]</p> |
05-09-2002, 11:21 PM | #20 | |
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I will propose to you my hypothesis I just cooked up. Time is dependant on the universe. God existed before the universe. God is uncaused and has existed forever. |
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