Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Quetzal · 09-17-2002, 12:20 AM

Quote:

Originally posted by Denis Lamoureux:
<strong>

Hi,
You're not wrong. You're absolutely right, but with one qualification.

We all use hard core scientific data to make metaphysical conclusions (eg, whether the world is teleological or dysteleological). This process is a "JUMP" from the data. It's not irrational, but then it's not purely mathematical, and consequently there's no "formula" to go from science to metaphysics. And to complicate things, it's done by messy finite personal critters--us.

So to say that I can "prove" my view is too strong a term. The best I can do is give an argument (like in a legal trial).

Of course, I'm making an epistemological argument here, and hope that my skeptical friends will concede that they've got to cut some slack on their asserts. In particular, their unceasing BELIEF that science proves the universe is dysteleological. It does no such thing (though Dawkins & Sagan have preached that for years).

Regards,
Denis</strong>

Hi Dr. Lamoureux, (and I guess Patrick since you're apparently interpreting for the rest of us),

I'm not sure this answers my question. Again, I am not advocating any particular viewpoint or belief. I understand you are making a "leap" from science to metaphysics. I was merely curious as to what compels you to do so. There must be some aspect of the natural world - some phenomenon or example - that leads you to arrive at the conclusion that nature is teleological. What is the "purpose" inherent in the physical world that impels you to a teleological viewpoint? How did you determine the dice were loaded?

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