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07-12-2003, 04:31 PM | #41 |
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Sorry bill, I don't think your quite famaliar with philosophical terminology. If qualia do exist, they are non-intentional in the representative sense, not as the representationalists suppose. According to the representationalists, what we think of as qualia are really nnthing at all, instead they're represented features rather than representing. The issue is whether or not there exists "mental paint". Just as a painting itself is not nude, but rather represents a nude figure, so the representationalists believe that what we take to be qualia are represented, and not actually a feature of the mental state at all. Those who believe qualia are non intentional believe that qualia are more like mental paint: they're something *intrinsic* to the mental state. Does that make it clearer?
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07-12-2003, 06:11 PM | #42 |
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boneyard bill, for a detailed explanation of representationalism see this essay
http://www.u.arizona.edu/~chalmers/p...sentation.html Now, you might think this is a little long as Chalmers tends to talk about everything he can pertaining to the subject matter of any one of his given papers so if that's the case scroll down to the summary he gives at the end. |
07-13-2003, 03:58 AM | #43 | ||||||
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Matter of course has relational 'properties' and it is the relation of the matter that, in the brain as a whole, forms awareness sophisticated enough that it is self aware. We don't seem to find controversial the the sensory feedback loops inherent in the central nervous systems of organisms with simpler structures, the question might then be whether we can allow that in virtue of complexity of structure alone, interaction with the environment reaches a level where conceptualisation occurs and, for me, the problems begin to generate. Quote:
Nevertheless, the considerable evidence that when brain processes are undergone the person being tested reports mentallings undergone are at a certain level non controversial, this theory merely attempts to avoid the problems of many others in describing why this might be so. Quote:
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This latter point seems for me clearly brought out in your following quote: Quote:
Again, the reductiveness you refer to seems to require that we can or must reduce what is going on when one sees boobs to merely electrons firing. Indeed, that's all it is, in the sense that the referent for the experience/fibers firing is best described in the third person by the latter, but this is not asserting the primacy of the latter for this reason only, rather, I worry that its a confusion about the status of the interpersonal natural language concepts we have, as they describe to us our experience in socially useful ways that we're conflating with the specific and precise scientific vocabulary that is generated to understand what is going on in the brain when there are first person reports of this kind. Quote:
Which would have been a great last 4 words to a philosphy post had i not included this sentence |
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07-13-2003, 08:23 AM | #44 | |
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The brain itself would not normally share this perspective. However, it would still want to have a name for the pain reaction, so that when the brain went through the right process, it would be able to say, "that was pain." This is the first person perspective. So in the third person perspective, we are giving names to externally observed mental processes. In the first-person perspective, the mental process triggers the name, without observing the process externally. Of course the first person and third person perspectives are different, and seem to describe quite different things, which is why people have trouble accepting materialism. But they are the same events viewed from a different perspective. In a sense, the first person view is not accessible, in that the only real way to experience the sensation in the same way that the brain does, is to have the experience happen to you, and even then the experience is best described as being similar. Feeling the sensation, and observing the sensation occur in another brain, are quite different, just as being full, and observing a full stomach are different. |
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07-13-2003, 08:45 AM | #45 | |||||||
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07-13-2003, 10:22 AM | #46 | |||||
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boneyard bill:
(I've already directed other posts towards you) Quote:
i.e. there is pain if and only if the brain goes through the proper procedure (or process), otherwise the pain process didn't happen and there is no pain. So with a non-pain type process (improper procedure) there isn't pain. Quote:
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07-13-2003, 02:29 PM | #47 | |
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Dominus Paradoxum writes:
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07-13-2003, 03:27 PM | #48 | |||||||
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Adrian Selby writes:
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We seem to agree on this much. There is a correlation between the physical activity in my brain and subjective experience. You are claiming that there are not two events. There is one event and two observers. The subjective observer who has the experience and the objective observer who's looking at an EEG or similar measuring device. But you claim that both are reporting the same event. My response is to say "prove it." I don't mean prove it with scientific exactitude. I mean show how it is possible that a c-firing is the same as an experience. If you prove it in this way you will have reduced the subjective experience to a physical event. It is nothing but a physical event in the same way that H2O is nothing but water and that the electricity is nothing but the flow of electrons. Your claim is that it doesn't have to be reduced. I agree. But if you do not reduce it. You are dealing with a fundamental postulate. First person experiences (to use your terminology) and third person brain processes are identical. You simply have a choice. Your claim is supported by evidence that allows this reduction or your claim in unsupported and un-reduced. If it is undreduced it is a fundamental postulate. First person experiences (subjectivity, mind) are inherent in third person (objective, material) processes. You can not leave the claim unreduced and unproven and still claim that it is not a postulate and not a fundamental part of your system. The one follows from the other. If it is not proven, and it is not a postulate, what is it? And if it is postulate, then "mind stuff" is inherent in matter. It doesn't matter whether "materialism" is a reductive position or not. Of course, it is, and that is why I claim your position is not materialist. But the important point is: What follows logically from the identity claim? This discussion isn't about philosophical labels. Those are only used for convenience. My point is that the identity theory is subject to the same burdens as any other theory that cannot reduce sentient experience to physical processes. |
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07-13-2003, 03:39 PM | #49 | |
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Adrian Selby writes:
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07-13-2003, 04:03 PM | #50 | ||
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Sodium writes:
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Secondly, my point was that qualia is information, but it is a particular kind of information and the kind of information it is makes a difference. For example, a baby feels hungry so it seeks a tit. It's little zombie twin has no feeling so it doesn't feel hungry. So it won't seek out a tit unless it is programmed to do so. In other words, we have to explain its behavior in terms of some sort of automatism. Now the larger point was that we can multiply these automatisms indefinitely just as the Ptolemaics could add epicycles to their system. In doing so, we can claim to have a complete explanation for human behavior. But it's an explanation that becomes very cumbersome over time. Qualia enables us to simplify our explanations. A baby eats because it is hungry. We seek food because we want to live. We have a will to live because living feels good. We don't need bundles of automatisms to explain these things. I think my alternate view should be apparent by now. I believe mind is an inherent characteristic of the universe itself. If mind is a fundamental reality, all kinds of problems we're currently puzzling about disappear. |
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