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Old 01-12-2003, 05:11 PM   #31
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Originally posted by Peter Kirby
Does Doherty justify his interpretation of "the rulers of this age" as meaning spiritual beings with anything more than its possibility and reference to certain mainstream scholars?

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Peter Kirby
Hi Peter - Doherty says this interpretation has been adopted by the majority of commentators, some of them reluctantly. He also shows how that reading is consistent with the rest of Paul's writing, in particular Ephesians 3:9-10. What more would you want?

Scroll down to "rulers of this age"

PS - he dates Mark at about 80, not in the 2nd century.
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Old 01-12-2003, 05:49 PM   #32
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So then I guess you've missed the whole point of my original article... Because my argument rests precisely on the idea that "such a personality as Jesus, his extraordinary miracles, parables, etc." could NOT have arisen "in such a short time"!
But some very serious agnostic or Jewish historians had to admit that it did happen because the alternatives are absurd and incoherent, and the mere fact that skeptics come up with so many self-contradictory theories only vindicates their premise.

I have read Doherty and he does claim the Gospels came much later. He claims the Gospels were written after Paul's "revelation" which ironically shortens the time to make them up and redact them. Maybe you should read him.

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Old 01-12-2003, 06:16 PM   #33
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
[B]Dear Rad,
So then I guess you've missed the whole point of my original article... Because my argument rests precisely on the idea that "such a personality as Jesus, his extraordinary miracles, parables, etc." could NOT have arisen "in such a short time"!

Yuri,

It's not really such a big deal once you realize that all the pieces were in place and just needed assembly. "Mark" simply pulled together several distinct elements and created something that turned out to be much larger than the sum of its parts.

He already had the "teachings" document, an accumulated collection of sayings, and the community that created this document had probably already invented a "founder figure" to whom these sayings were ascribed (Kung Fu-Tze is now believed by many scholars to be an invented source of traditional Chinese philosophical sayings). Practically all the elements of Jesus' life, ministry, and Passion can be found in the Scriptures. All that was left was to create some symbolic characters and a narrative (which was likely based on the Jewish liturgical reading model). See, "Mark" did not just "make up" (a term some folks are fond of using because it sounds flippant) his gospel out of whole cloth. The CONTENT is not really what's original about it--it's the presentation.

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Old 01-12-2003, 06:31 PM   #34
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Originally posted by Radorth
But some very serious agnostic or Jewish historians had to admit that it did happen because the alternatives are absurd and incoherent, and the mere fact that skeptics come up with so many self-contradictory theories only vindicates their premise.

I have read Doherty and he does claim the Gospels came much later. He claims the Gospels were written after Paul's "revelation" which ironically shortens the time to make them up and redact them. Maybe you should read him.

Rad

"Historical Jesus" scholars certainly have come up with many incoherent and self-contradictory theories. That's the reason I no longer subscribe to the historicist position. The mythicist theory is logical, coherent, and internally consistent.

So "Doherty claims" that the Gospels were written after Paul's revelation? Well, yeah. Him and the vast majority of Biblical scholars as well, Rad. No surprises there.

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Old 01-12-2003, 06:41 PM   #35
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Originally posted by Tercel
Earl's case certainly seems to be dependent upon 2nd Century gospels.
As far as I know, he accepts a first century dating for at least Mark. And I'm not sure how this dependence is a weakness. There's no compelling evidence that an earlier dating for the Gospels is more likely.
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Yeah he does get carried away in his wishful assertions about just how copied the gospels are from one another - I noticed that too.
Can you think of any other respects in which he is inconsisent with regard to his appeals to liberal scholarship?
Could you give me examples of how he gets "carried away" with "wishful assertions"? When Doherty agrees with liberal scholars, he explains why. When he doesn't, he explains why. There is nothing "inconsistent" about this. Are you (and Rad) suggesting that to be consistent, he must reject everything conservative scholars say, and uncritically accept everything liberal scholars say?

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Old 01-12-2003, 07:15 PM   #36
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Originally posted by Radorth
He appeals to liberal "scholars" whenever it suits, but contradicts their assertions that the`Gosples are too contradictory and divergent to be taken seriously. He flatly says they are too similar, are basically copies and that even John is based on some synoptic.
Doherty does not "contradict liberal scholars" on this score. He's saying exactly what they do. You are trying to argue that the Gospels cannot be "contradictory and divergent" and "similar" at the same time. The problem with your argument is that the "contradictory and divergent" elements and the "similar" elements are not the same. Generally, the "contradictory and divergent" aspect has more to do with details and specifics, while the "similar" aspect has more to do with the overall structure of the narratives
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His assertion that Paul NEVER mentions the crucifixion is just nutso IMO.
Doherty asserts no such thing. You, sir, are lying. This is a bald-faced, filthy lie. There is no other way to put it.
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Then you won't have to assert a plethora different conspiracies and cover-ups going on for 300 years to make a coherent case.
Doherty asserts no "conspiracies" and "cover-ups." He asserts nothing more than an honest misunderstanding of the Gospels by Gentiles who were unaware of their allegorical origins and unfamiliar with the Greek Platonistic worldview of Paul and the early Christians.

By the way, your claim to have "read Doherty" is gratuitious lie # 3. You can't claim to have read something until you've read it thoroughly, and understood it. It also helps if you don't tell lies about it.

Gregg
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Old 01-12-2003, 08:05 PM   #37
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Hi Toto,

Thanks for your reply.

Toto: "Doherty says this interpretation has been adopted by the majority of commentators, some of them reluctantly."

About the majority (and the reluctance of some), this may or may not be true; I haven't looked at this in much detail. But certainly Doherty would agree that an appeal to a majority of commentators is a fallacy?

I just picked out the two commentaries on 1 Corinthians that I happen to have in my room, and here is what they say.

"There seems to be no convincing reason to interpret 'this world's rulers' as being any other than those who actually took part in the condemnation and crucifixion of Jesus, and the wisdom they did not know was that their action would have a result exactly opposite to their intention: the ignominy of the cross was turned into the glory of redeeming lordship." (William Orr and James Walther, 1976, Anchor Bible Commentary, 1 Corinthians, p. 164)

"With unwearied persistence the apostle points out that the wisdom of which he speaks is not the wisdom of this age. He has been stressing this for some time and he now adds or of the rulers of this age. In antiquity, Origen took this to refer to the demonic powers behind world rulers, an interpretation which Chrysostom rejected, and this difference of opinion has persisted through the centuries. Among modern commentators Conzelmann, for example, sees a reference to the demons, while Orr and Walther think of earthly rulers. The 'demonic' view sees Christ as engaged in a gigantic struggle with evil forces of the unseen world, a view which is undoubtedly to be found in Paul's writings (e.g. Rom 8:38-39; Col. 2:15; cf. 2 Cor 4:4). But it may be doubted whether this is his meaning here. Three points are especially important. One is that throughout this whole passage the contrast is between the wisdom of God shown in the gospel and the wisdom of this world. To introduce now the thought of the wisdom of demonic powers is to bring in an extraneous concept, and one that is out of harmony with v. 9, which clearly refers to humans. Paul could scarcely have expected his readers to grasp this without one word of explanation. A second is that it was the rulers of this age who are said to have crucified Christ and this same word rulers, archontes, is repeatedly used of the Jewish and Roman leaders (Acts 3:17; 4:5,8,26; Rom. 13:3, etc.). The third is that it is explicitly said that they carried out the crucifixion in ignorance (Acts 3:17; 13:27; cf. Jn 16:3), but, by contrast, the demons are often said to have known who Jesus was when people did not (Mk. 1:24, 34, etc.). Paul habitually ascribes power to the demonic forces, but not ignorance. The very concept of a struggle between demonic forces and the power of God implies that the demons knew what they were up against. Paul's use of this age probably points to the transitory nature of the office of rulers, over against the truth of the gospel, which is permanent. This transitoriness is also in mind in the concluding who are coming to nothing (the verb is katargeo; see on 1:28). The rulers are being rendered completely ineffective; their vaunted power and wisdom are made null and void." (Leon Morris, 1985, 1 Corinthians, pp. 53-54)

Doherty clearly has read more commentaries than I have, so he may know better about the percentage of scholars who favor the 'demonic hypothesis', but this quick glance at what is available to me at the moment suggests that this is not an issue on which there is enough agreement to base an argument on scholarly opinion.

Toto: "He also shows how that reading is consistent with the rest of Paul's writing, in particular Ephesians 3:9-10."

According to Doherty, at least, Paul did not write Ephesians. If it is an error to turn to the Gospel of Mark in order to interpret the authentic letters of Paul, something which Doherty warns about dozens of times, why would it be okay to interpret 1 Corinthians with the use of Ephesians?

Toto: "What more would you want?"

It would be more clear if Paul had used "in the heavens" or some such indication that the rulers of this age are not earthly but rather non-physical.

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Peter Kirby
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Old 01-12-2003, 08:27 PM   #38
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Originally posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
Hi, Greg,

For a serious historian, it's important to be able to understand the origins of Christianity. Where did this movement come from?
I understand that, Yuri. What I was trying to say is, I see all these people who seem absolutely determined to dismiss any possibility of an entirely mythic origin of Christ and to shoehorn a historical figure named Jesus into the beginning of Christianity, even to the point of being willing to strip him of every element--charisma, notoriety, etc.--that would have caused people to organize a faith movement around him in the first place!
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So the main question is whether a non-HJ will explain the origins of Christianity better than a HJ. I think it has remained something of a difficulty for the mythicist position that, so far, they haven't really presented a coherent story of how the earliest Christian movement could have started without any human founder figure.
Forgive me, but I must disagree and ask a question. If you have read Doherty, how can you say this? Doherty presents a very plausible and coherent story of how this could have happened. It one of the central elements of his thesis and very difficult to miss. Try re-reading the three main articles.

Essentially, Doherty suggests that Christianity did not begin with any one person--it began with many different, unconnected individuals and groups worshiping the Logos/Christ. In other words, it began more with a concept--an idea or belief developing among numerous Greek and Hellenized Jewish philosophers in a divine intermediary who brought salvation, either through revealing wisdom or through a cosmic redemptive act. Many others, such as Paul, seized on this concept and started adding their own ideas.

Some regard Paul as the real "founder figure" of Christianity, but we really don't know if he was as influential as he appears to have been. He may have been, but it's also possible that "Mark" was heavily influenced by Pauline ideas, and since Christianity really took off with Mark and the other Gospels, people became more likely to preserve early Christian letters that seemed to accord with the Gospels. If this is the case, it might be more accurate to regard the anonymous "Mark" as the founding figure of Christianity as we know it today--since it was because of the Gospel that Jesus eventually came to be regarded as a historical figure.
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But lots of people suggest that some historical persons did stand behind some or all of the typical stories of mythology.
Of course we always have to take this into account. But it's by no means a law that an actual individual or event must stand behind every single mythological story. Some people seem to take it as a matter of faith that all mythological stories must have direct historical precedents. But there are thousands of mythological stories, so there is no way to prove such an assertion.
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Well, sure enough, I don't cheerfully assent to the idea that formerly devout Jews would accept such things. In fact, I'm saying that the true story of early Jewish-Christianity is still being covered up by our bigoted and/or incompetent NT scholars.
I dunno that it's being "covered up." All the information is out there, it's just that most scholars don't like the implications that arise when the information is pieced together--which is exactly what Doherty has done.
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Still, I would suggest that much of this Pauline material should really be dated to the 2c. And in such a case, explaining why this Pauline material is so silent about the HJ may be a somewhat different problem than what is generally assumed.
Now this is a remarkable claim, I must say. Remember, you don't have only the Pauline letters to consider, you have the entire corpus of epistles. If the Christian letters were contemporary with the Gospels, then it becomes stranger than ever that they would not mention anything about the HJ. "Somewhat different" problem is an understatement--it's a serious problem, and an insurmountable one, IMO.

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Old 01-12-2003, 08:39 PM   #39
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Hi Peter

On Ephesians, Doherty seems to think it was written within a decade or two after Paul's death by some of his close followers. He does not discuss using it to explicate Paul's letter to the Corinthians, but I imagine that he thinks it reflects Paul's thinking because of its early dating.

Doherty discusses the various interpretations of the phrase on the url I gave above:

Quote:
Scholars who balk at this interpretation of Paul's words and declare that he simply means the earthly powers which the Gospels specify (e.g., Anchor Bible, p.164), are bucking even ancient opinion. Ignatius uses the term archon in a thoroughly angelic sense (Smyrneans 6:1). Origen regarded the archonton of 2:8 as evil spiritual beings, and so did the gnostic Marcion.

Modern scholars like C. K. Barrett (First Epistle to the Corinthians, p.72), Paula Fredriksen (From Jesus to Christ, p.56), and Jean Hering (The First Epistle of St. Paul to the Corinthians, p.16-17, a brief but penetrating analysis), have felt constrained to agree. Delling in the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (I, p.489) notes that the spirit rulers are portrayed by Paul as "treating the Lord of glory as prey in ignorance of the divine plan for salvation." They operated in the spiritual realm, which S. Salmond (The Expositor's Greek Testament, Ephesians, p.284) describes as "supra-terrestrial but sub-celestial regions." Paul Ellingworth, A Translator's Handbook for 1 Corinthians, p.46, states: "A majority of scholars think that supernatural powers are intended here."

S. G. F. Brandon (History, Time and Deity, p.167) unflinchingly declares that although Paul's statement "may seem on cursory reading to refer to the Crucifixion as an historical event. . .the expression 'rulers of this age' does not mean the Roman and Jewish authorities. Instead, it denotes the daemonic powers who . . . were believed to inhabit the planets (the celestial spheres) and control the destinies of men. . . . Paul attributes the Crucifixion not to Pontius Pilate and the Jewish leaders, but to these planetary powers."

. . .
I don't think Doherty is basing his statement on a clear consensus of scholarly opinion as much as he is using the agreement of scholars to validate his own reading.
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Old 01-12-2003, 08:51 PM   #40
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Hi Toto,

If Doherty's reading is not based on scholarly opinion, what is the reading based on, other than the interpretation of books other than 1 Corinthians (such as Ephesians)? Or is Doherty's reading possible yet undemonstrated?

Other than the fact that the pseudepigraphist wrote falsely under the name of Paul, what suggests that Ephesians was written by people with ties to the apostle?

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Peter Kirby
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