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Old 03-13-2003, 08:02 PM   #11
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Quote:
Originally posted by Writer@Large
A bit of off topic comment, sorry ....


I've always found Fitzgerald's translation of Homer a bit thick. Lattimore is more readable, by far, especially in a classroom.

--W@L
Well, I like its chewiness.

Mal, Paul Tobin's site Rejection of Pascal's Wager has a good intro discussion of the problems with the NIV.

Vorkosigan
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Old 03-13-2003, 08:04 PM   #12
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Holding again:

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Shall we cut the BS (baloney sandwiches), Vinnie? I'll put it simply:

Explain to me how we determine that Tacitus wrote the Annals.

Then explain to me why by the same degree of evidence, Matthew is not the authority behind the Gospel that bears his name.


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Old 03-13-2003, 08:24 PM   #13
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I'd like to see your response to that, Vinnie.
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Old 03-13-2003, 08:49 PM   #14
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Quote:
Originally posted by Family Man
I'd like to see your response to that, Vinnie.
Of some relevance:

On Roger Pearse's Tertullian homepage under Tacitus this is said:

Quote:
Mendell also gives an extensive list of witnesses to the text from the 1st century onwards. From this we can see that Tacitus is mentioned or quoted in every century down to and including the Sixth. The Seventh and Eighth centuries are the only ones that have left no trace of knowledge of our author4. Without quoting every reference, here are some which I found of interest.

Around 400:

Ammianus Marcellinus publishes his history, starting where Tacitus left off.
Sulpicius Severus of Aquitaine, Chronicorum Libri II, 29, uses Annals 15.37 and 15.44 as his source, for the marriage of Nero to Pythagoras and the punishment of the Christians. (I should add I don't know exactly what ties to what). English in ANF; Latin text is Sulpicius Severus. Sulpicii Severi libri qui supersunt. Ed. C. Halm. CSEL 1, Wien (1866). See also E.Laupot, Tacitus' Fragment 2: The Anti-Roman Movement of the Christiani and the Nazoreans, Vigiliae Christianae 54 (2000) 233-47
Jerome in his commentary on Zacchariah 14.1, 2 cites Tacitus as the author of a history from the death of Augustus to the death of Domitian, in 30 volumes.
Around 500:
Servius quotes a lost portion of the text in his commentary on the Aeneid 3.399.
Orosius used Tacitus, and quotes from now lost portions of the text. Cassiodorus quotes from the Germania 45. Jordanes quotes from the Agricola 10, and is the last author of antiquity to do so.

I don't know how early Annals is attested in this list (I don't have Mendell's work) or not or how extensive the first and second century references are. But I would assume that even if other works are attested earlier, Annals may be able to be attributed to Tacitus on a stylistic basis or through some other means. Honestly, I do not care. If the evidence for authorship of Annals by Tacitus is of the same quality as that of authorship for the Gospel of Matthew by Matthew then I would have to state the we do not have good historical reasons for believing Tacitus authored Annals. That is simple enough and if the historian thinks otherwise, he or she is incorrect.

And note that Holding did not say Matthew authored GMatt but that he was the authority behind the tradition.

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Old 03-13-2003, 09:04 PM   #15
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Not to mention that Matthew appears to have been used anonymously for almost a century......
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Old 03-13-2003, 09:29 PM   #16
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Not only that, but there is no incentive to append any particular writer's name to the Annals of Tacitus, at least as far as I can see, whereas appending an apostle's name to the Gospels is a useful apologetic strategy.

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Old 03-13-2003, 09:51 PM   #17
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That too.

I can't talk to Holding anymore. He drives me nuts and I am ashamed of my public behavior at tweb recently over him.

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Old 03-14-2003, 01:48 AM   #18
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Quote:
Originally posted by Vinnie
That too.

I can't talk to Holding anymore. He drives me nuts and I am ashamed of my public behavior at tweb recently over him.

Vinnie
Check his sig. That is his goal. What he won't admit is that pissing you off and generally behaving like an ass is the only way he can "win" an argument.

I've yet to see him deliver any knockout punches. His boxing strategy appears to consist of strutting around and screaming insults until his opponent leaves the ring out of disgust. And perhaps having discovered once again that you can bang all day on the door of the deaf. Then holding declares himself the victor.

I have some respect for any Christians who feel at least a little associative shame at his behavior.

If it helps, step away from a day or two, then return when you've had time to let your frustration cool off. It helps me a lot. Which reminds me, I'm due to respond to him by now, I'm sure....

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Old 03-14-2003, 11:12 PM   #19
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Vork, I see you have taken up the subject with JP. Diana, thanks for the advice but I think I am just going to have to completely ignore Holding for an indefinite period of time. Sustained conversation is just too painful:

Quote:
Vork: and in an environment where forgery was common and many documents redacted, interpolated, and edited and written in other's names

Holding: That's rather overarching and vague.
Wasn't one of Holding's earlier comments "overarchinging and vague":

Holding: "Quotations in antiquity did not consistently name authors."

He seems to have done what he accused you of.

Further, Holding said this: “It starts with the assumption of anonymity, then gives a reason for attribution, without showing why anonymity should be assumed in the first place.”

But doesn’t he beg the question himself? He said this: “Quotations in antiquity did not consistently name authors.” Doesn’t that defense assume they knew the authors but didn’t name them? It assumes they were not anonymous doesn’t it? Is whats good for the goose good for the gander?

Along these lines:

Quote:
E.P. Sanders & Margaret Davies, Studying the Synoptic Gospels, p. 6

Questions of the date and authorship of works written in Greek, as were the Gospels, are ordinarily quite simple. Usually they were published in the author’s name, and usually there is enough biographical information about the author to allow the reader to date the work, at least approximately. At first glance this appears to be the case with the synoptic gospels . . . [but] these titles, however, were not originally attached to the gospels: the author of Mark did not write, ‘The Gospel according to Mark’, but simply ‘the beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God (Mark 1:1). The gospel writers, it will turn out, did not follow the usual Greek (and Roman) practice pf naming themselves, but rather the tradition of anonymous publication, a practice frequently followed in Jewish literature.
It appears that the Gospels follow the tradition of anonymous publication and they were quoted anonymously for many years and how they were quoted and used is important as well. I don’t see how you were begging the question.

Further:

Quote:
E.P. Sanders & Margaret Davies, Studying the Synoptic Gospels, p. 13

The attributions are surprisingly late. If most scholars are right in thinking that the gospels were written between about 65 and 85, it appears that each gospel was used for at least 50 years before an author was assigned to it. In order to consider the attributions to be based on certain knowledge, we would have to suppose that early Christians transmitted the author's names but that for 50 to 80 years no one who wrote literature which has survived mentioned them. When one considers how widely they were used (especially Matthew), the silence seems inexplicable, if accurate information about the authors was available. The early Christians seem genuinely not to have cared who wrote the gospels, and it is difficult to combine a theory of carefully maintained tradition with the fact of literary silence. This consideration counts in favour of the view that the names which were attached to the gospels were not based on unbroken tradition.
He can ask why a gospel would be attributed to Mark rather than to Peter directly if late 2d Christians were making up names. Or why Luke was chosen but these types of arguments fail. Christian detective work in the second century may have used the “we” passages in Acts to conclude that this anonymous document was authored by Luke. Though I do not rule out Lucan authorship of Luke-Acts myself. Scholars generally recognize that the strongest case for traditional authorship goes to Luke-Acts.

Given that Mark, apparently, was used for such a long time without being considered authored by Peter, it could scarcely have been magically attributed to Peter at such a late date by Christians. As noted, Holding might argue that Christians wanted a Gospel authored by Peter but tradition overcame their “want” and forced them to attribute it to Mark. Holding might buy that but we can offer a just as valid alternative solution:

Quote:
Ibid, p. 13

Irenaeus (and others) did not have a clue where the Gospel of Mark came from or who wrote it. They loved the gospel and found in its rough and plain prose an echo of an earlier day and a place where Greek was not fluent. They wished to assign a gospel to Peter, and the apparently simple gospel now called Mark was the likeliest candidate. They could not, however, attribute it to Peter himself, since it had been around for almost a hundred years without having been ascribed to him. They put together Acts 12.12 (Peter went to Mark’s mother’s house in Jerusalem) and 1 Peter 5.13 (‘my son Mark’) and concluded that the historical person Mark could have written the gospel.
Holding could counter with asking why they didn’t attribute Mark to Silas (see 1 Pet 5:12 and Acts 15:22).

But this only goes to show that this is guesswork here. We don’t know the minds of second century Christians or how they were thinking on this. We are guessing here. It may be informed guessing but guessing it is.

Further, he may try to turn this into and argument for Matthean authorship. Why would the Christians attribute to Matthew a gospel that was not attributed to him for so long? But this can be countered. It may have been common knowledge that Peter didn’t author any gospel but that might not have even been a question in the minds of 2d Christians as Matthew appears to have been a much less prominent apostle than Peter. Also:

Quote:
ibid p. 14-15

Matthew may well have been chosen for the First Gospel because only there is the tax collector who followed Jesus named ‘Matthew’. Mark and Luke list a Matthew as a disciple of Jesus (Mark 3:18 and par.) but only Matthew connects this name with an individual mentioned elsewhere: the tax collector whom Jesus called to follow him (matt. 9.9-13 and parr.; he is named Levi in Mark and Luke). Who better to know the ‘real’ name of the tax collector than the man himself? This bit of detection was probably added to papias’ tradition about Matthew as the collector of sayings. The sayings material in the First Gospel is extremely well organized and prominent, and the conclusion that the author of the gospel was Matthew doubtless seemed evident.
I pointed out material on Papias in that thread and JP responded if I remember correctly.

As stated, reading the minds of late 2d Christians is largely guesswork. The strongest argument in favor of anonymous publication seems to be two-fold in my view:

1). As noted above, the Gospels did not follow the standard practice of naming themselves but seemed to follow the practice of anonymous publication.

2). How the gospels were used and cited until the late 2d. Lets look at some (See follow up post)
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Old 03-14-2003, 11:15 PM   #20
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I just saw your next response. I might dispute this depending on what exactly you meant:

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Vork: We don't start with the assumption that the gospel is anonymous; we note in the historical record that the first mention of a name with that gospel occurs late in the record that we have even though the gospel is mentioned earlier.
I would add to that the notion that the gospels do not follow the common practice of naming themselves but, apparently, the practice of anonymous publication.

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