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Old 09-17-2002, 07:37 PM   #71
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Quote:
Originally posted by leonarde:
<strong>Posted:

I was talking about admissibility of evidence as
happens in our legal system: a witness talking about an experience that happened to him personally will, assuming it has bearing on the
case or related issues, almost always be able to
testify without objections. A witness trying to
introduce WRITTEN evidence (ie documents that he
himself did not write and did not PERSONALLY see
written originally) has more of an obstacle to face: the court may rule the documents to be of
uncertain provenance and/or that the given witness
is not qualified, in the sense of being a witness
to the WRITING of the document (ie it would be something like WRITTEN hearsay evidence) to testify as to their validity. It is a matter of being at two removes from the document: not having
seen the events described AND not having seen the
documents written. THAT is what I mean by Paul "just read" (that is, WOULD just have read in our hypothetical) the document.
Cheers!</strong>
By this criteria, none of the gospels would be useful since we cannot determine who wrote them. It would also exclude anything told to Paul by the disciples since it would be hearsay. That would leave us only with Paul's personal experience, which he doesn't relate any details of, only that Jesus "appeared" to him. If that's your position, then fine.
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Old 09-17-2002, 07:49 PM   #72
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Quote:
Originally posted by leonarde:
<strong>

Could you quote me saying the "any writig by Jesus
would not have been useful" or words to that effect??</strong>
Your 6th point in your first quote seemed to assume a document by Jesus would be just like the gospels we have, only told from the first person POV. I agree that such a document would not be very useful, but that is only one form such a document could take.

Quote:
<strong>
That is NOT my position and I don't THINK
I said that. Rather I was contrasting the likely
reality of such a Jesus-written work with the
starkly optimistic picture that you gave it in the
early going:

Especially given the controvery over the veracity of the NT writings as we have
them and the amount of time between his death and the present, it seems completely illogical that he would not have left writings from his own hand to clear up any questions about what he may or may not have said.
I'm asking because I honestly cannot think of a single good reason for his not to have left his own writings given the picture of him as presented in the NT.
</strong>
Ok, perhaps saying _any_ questions is too optimistic, but believing he could certainly have left a document that would have cleared up _many_ questions is to me not at all "starkly optimistic".

Quote:
<strong>
I tried to give a few suggestions as to possible reasons. Given them,
it doesn't seem to ME to be "completely illogical"
for Jesus not to have written something.</strong>
So you don't find it the least bit strange that:

-the one and only "son of God" (whatever that means)
-who was to sent to earth for a brief period
-whose teachings and beliefs were vitally important
-whose teachings had to last for thousands of years because the whole worlds eternal salvation depends on it

Would _not_ leave any direct account of his teachings and would instead rely on the resources of his mostly illiterate followers and the vagaries of chance to have his message carried across the 2 millinium that have passed since his death?

If you don't find that illogical, I don't know what you _would_ find illogical.
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Old 09-17-2002, 07:54 PM   #73
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Quote:
Originally posted by motorhead:
<strong>If this hasn't been mentioned already, I think it's a good possibility that Jesus would've left writings behind had he known that a worldwide organization would be set up in his name, and had he thought his return wouldn't be for at least 2000 or so years. The fact is he thought the Kingdom of God was coming very soon, probably while he was still alive too. When he realized he was probably going to die for his preaching, he still predicted that the Kingdom would come within the lifetime of his disciples. Want proof? Look it up. It's well documented in the "divinely inspired" writings of Mark, Matthew, Luke, and John.</strong>
I agree. It seems clear that Jesus thought "the end was near", it just seems hard to reconcile his being completely wrong about that with his being "the son of God".
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Old 09-17-2002, 07:55 PM   #74
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Posted by Skeptical:
Quote:
You listed as one of your reasons in your first post:

6)the Gospels contain (and this is most explicit in John) an element of WITNESS: hey, I saw this guy raise Lazarus with my own eyes! If Jesus had written a Gospel it would have been one guy "witnessing" to himself. Not so persuasive; what if he really WERE loco?

This seems to me to assume that a document written by Jesus would have been merely stories of Jesus saying "I did this" or "I healed this person" or "I raised this guy from the dead", sort of like the Gospels but told from the POV of the first person. If you assume this sort of content,///snip by leonarde///
If you leave out the word "merely" you have my
position: a "Jesus Gospel" would have been (I assume unless someone can indicate otherwise) SOMETHING like the Gospels we have: a narrative of Jesus' ministry INCLUDING (but not limited to) teachings (Sermon on the Mount, parables etc.). Otherwise the "hypothetical" work is completely meaningless. If you have a 'Jesus epistle' in mind
then this too (its usefullness) would have to be
judged on ITS contents.
But in general I'm not in agreement that Jesus'
teachings as they have come down to us are SO
ambiguous/unclear.
Cheers!
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Old 09-17-2002, 08:08 PM   #75
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Posted by Skeptical:[first quoting leonarde]
Quote:
I was talking about admissibility of evidence as happens in our legal system: a witness talking about an experience that happened to him personally will, assuming it has bearing on the case or related issues, almost always be able to testify without objections. A witness trying to
introduce WRITTEN evidence (ie documents that he
himself did not write and did not PERSONALLY see
written originally) has more of an obstacle to face: the court may rule the documents to be of
uncertain provenance and/or that the given witness
is not qualified, in the sense of being a witness
to the WRITING of the document (ie it would be something like WRITTEN hearsay evidence) to testify as to their validity. It is a matter of being at two removes from the document: not having
seen the events described AND not having seen the
documents written. THAT is what I mean by Paul "just read" (that is, WOULD just have read in our hypothetical) the document.
Cheers!


By this criteria, none of the gospels would be useful since we cannot determine who wrote them. It would also exclude anything told to Paul by the disciples since it would be hearsay. That would leave us only with Paul's personal experience, which he doesn't relate any details of, only that Jesus "appeared" to him. If that's your position, then fine.
Yes, none of the Gospels would hack it a
US court. But most people judge religious documents a little differently:

1)Is the given document an expression of a religious community?

2)Is it (the document)in substantially the same
form as it was written?

3) Is the document relatively free of later accretions?

4) Does the document tell us something about the
workings of God in this world? Or God's will?

The identity (ie name of the author) is secondary
in importance to my way of thinking. In the case
of the Gospels, any one of dozens of disciples of
Christ could have written them, or at least given
the oral testimony upon which the Gospel text is
based.
Therefore the works would indeed be useful.

Cheers!

[ September 17, 2002: Message edited by: leonarde ]</p>
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Old 09-17-2002, 08:12 PM   #76
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Posted by Skeptical:
Quote:
So you don't find it the least bit strange that:

-the one and only "son of God" (whatever that means)
-who was to sent to earth for a brief period
-whose teachings and beliefs were vitally important
-whose teachings had to last for thousands of years because the whole worlds eternal salvation depends on it

Would _not_ leave any direct account of his teachings and would instead rely on the resources of his mostly illiterate followers and the vagaries of chance to have his message carried across the 2 millinium that have passed since his death?
Nope.

Cheers!
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Old 09-17-2002, 08:17 PM   #77
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Quote:
Originally posted by leonarde:
<strong>Posted by Skeptical:

If you leave out the word "merely" you have my
position: a "Jesus Gospel" would have been (I assume unless someone can indicate otherwise) SOMETHING like the Gospels we have: a narrative of Jesus' ministry INCLUDING (but not limited to) teachings (Sermon on the Mount, parables etc.). Otherwise the "hypothetical" work is completely meaningless.</strong>
So let me pose a specific hypothetical document by Jesus. Suppose for the sake of argument it contained:

1) A listing of his core teachings, similar but not necessarily limited to what is found in the gospel sermons and parables

2) A listing of his beliefs about his own "divinity" or lack thereof clarifying, for example, whether he thought he was equal to God or just "second in command" (thus eliminating the Marcion controvery)

3) A listing of his specific beliefs about his relationship to Judaism and whether he truly thought he was the messiah

4) A listing of his specific beliefs about his social world such as whether he thought women were equal socially to men, whether he thought slavery was evil, etc.

Assume it had only this content and nothing about specific actions of healings or raising of the dead as found in the gospels.

Now, granted this is a hypothetical, but are you saying that such a document or something very similar would _not_ have been useful?

Quote:
<strong>
If you have a 'Jesus epistle' in mind
then this too (its usefullness) would have to be
judged on ITS contents.
But in general I'm not in agreement that Jesus'
teachings as they have come down to us are SO
ambiguous/unclear.
Cheers!</strong>
It's not even necessarily that things he is supposed to have said are unclear, although some things are certainly not clear. The point is that there are many things Jesus could have written his views on that would have been useful. He could have eliminated the Marcion controvery. He could have stated unequivocally whether he thought he was the only way to God (yes, I know what the gospels _say_ he said). He could have stated his position on Slavery. There are thousands of things he could have written about. It seems clear to me that such information would have been not only very useful, but expected.
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Old 09-17-2002, 08:27 PM   #78
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You ORIGINAL contention was not that such a work
would be "useful" but that its mere absence itself
causes doubt, confusion, and (in some persons')
disbelief. Furthermore you claim that this (the
absence of this entirely theoretical work) is
"illogical". I wouldn't mind at all a Gospel according to Jesus. But its non-existence hardly is probative of the value of the Gospels that we DO have.....

Cheers!
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Old 09-17-2002, 08:29 PM   #79
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Quote:
Originally posted by leonarde:
<strong>Posted by Skeptical:[first quoting leonarde] Yes, none of the Gospels would hack it a
US court. But most people judge religious documents a little differently:</strong>
Then why are you judging a hypothetical document written by Jesus and attested by Paul by this criteria?


Quote:
<strong>
1)Is the given document an expression of a religious community?</strong>
Ok, so far no religious document ever written could be excluded.

Quote:
<strong>
2)Is it (the document)in substantially the same
form as it was written?</strong>
If you mean the "original" form, how would you know if you don't have the original?

Quote:
<strong>
3) Is the document relatively free of later accretions?</strong>
How would you know if you don't have early copies?

Quote:
<strong>
4) Does the document tell us something about the
workings of God in this world? Or God's will?</strong>
Any theistic document ever written meets this criteria

Quote:
<strong>
The identity (ie name of the author) is secondary
in importance to my way of thinking. In the case
of the Gospels, any one of dozens of disciples of
Christ could have written them, or at least given
the oral testimony upon which the Gospel text is
based.
Therefore the works would indeed be useful.</strong>
So, a document in the possession of the disciples they claim was written by Jesus, attested to by Paul in the earliest Christian tradition would not have been useful. However, documents of unknown source, written no earlier than 2 decades after Paul and most probably later, for which we have no fully extant copies older than the 4th century, those documents _are_ useful.

Quite a bit of a double standard you've set up there. In other words, you refuse to admit that such a document would be useful because admitting it would have been useful would indicate a problem that your not willing to deal with.
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Old 09-17-2002, 08:31 PM   #80
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You've done the old bait and switch by substituting the word "useful" for what we were
talking about earlier: whether the non-existence
of a Jesus work is puzzling, illogical, discrediting, and plain illogical. It ain't.

Cheers!
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