Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
04-25-2003, 05:37 PM | #51 | |||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: anywhere
Posts: 1,976
|
Quote:
Your God is not an object? Then how does he create objects? Gee, the logical absurdity there is just astounding. Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
You may, with my permission, continue your contradictory dialogue with yourself. |
|||||
04-25-2003, 07:57 PM | #52 | |||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Apr 2003
Posts: 2,199
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
|||||
04-25-2003, 08:27 PM | #53 |
Moderator - Science Discussions
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: Providence, RI, USA
Posts: 9,908
|
yguy, I don't see how "object" is any less vague than "thing". What would the opposite of an object be? A subject? Is a mind (or soul, if you prefer) an object? Is the number three an object? Is a choice an object? Is spacetime an object? Unless you define your terms more clearly, saying "a thing is an object" is no more helpful than "a thing is stuff".
|
04-26-2003, 09:33 AM | #54 | ||||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Apr 2003
Posts: 2,199
|
Quote:
sub·ject n. 8.Philosophy. a.The essential nature or substance of something as distinguished from its attributes. b.The mind or thinking part as distinguished from the object of thought. It is in that sense that I am using "object." Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
||||||
04-26-2003, 10:31 AM | #55 |
Moderator - Science Discussions
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: Providence, RI, USA
Posts: 9,908
|
Well, does the number three have a "cause"? I always pictured it as existing timelessly in some sort of realm of platonic forms. And why is an individual mind or soul an "object" while God, who is usually conceived by theists (though perhaps not by pantheists) as an omnipotent and omniscient mind or soul, is not? Both would presumably be equally immaterial. Both are potentially "objects of thought" too (if God wasn't, how could we think about him?). So, I still don't understand your claim that somehow everything other than God is an object and must have a cause, but God is not and can therefore be uncaused.
|
04-26-2003, 10:59 AM | #56 | ||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Apr 2003
Posts: 2,199
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
I believe it was in "The Great Divorce" that C.S. Lewis addressed this. Quote:
|
||||
04-26-2003, 11:30 AM | #57 | |||
Contributor
Join Date: May 2001
Location: San Jose, CA
Posts: 13,389
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
You may not realize it but your argument is a combination "red herring" and strawman. It seems that you are trying to point out that science is "false" because it can't explain everything or is only an approximation. However, "science" has never claimed to have absolute knowledge (strawman part). You are attempting to do this undermining by poking at the probabilities in QM (red herring). However, you misstate the probabilistic nature of QM as a weakness rather than just a property. Bottom line: You need to undermine the legitimacy of science so you can suggest a "better" theory of how the world works. It might be helpful if you look it why solipsism is an untenable position before you take this last step. |
|||
04-26-2003, 11:51 AM | #58 | ||||||||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Apr 2003
Posts: 2,199
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
||||||||||
04-26-2003, 11:52 AM | #59 |
Moderator - Science Discussions
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: Providence, RI, USA
Posts: 9,908
|
Jesse:
Well, does the number three have a "cause"? I always pictured it as existing timelessly in some sort of realm of platonic forms. yguy: Numbers are only convenient labels, are they not? If the number 3 didn't exist, would lithium cease to exist because there is no label to describe how many protons it has? I think the hypothetical "if the number 3 didn't exist" is meaningless, just like "if the laws of logic didn't exist". That's sort of my point--things like logical and mathematical rules are timeless truths, they don't belong to the realm of cause & effect, so if you call three an "object" it violates your rule that all objects must have causes. Jesse: And why is an individual mind or soul an "object" while God, who is usually conceived by theists (though perhaps not by pantheists) as an omnipotent and omniscient mind or soul, is not? yguy: Because God can know things about us, and we can know things about each other, but we can't know things about God - such as what He looks like - any more than you can get information about the sun by shining a flashlight at it. The fact that we know what other people "look like" is not relevant, I'm talking about knowledge of another person's mind, not their physical appearance. We can't directly peer into each other's minds, we know them only indirectly--wouldn't the same be true of knowledge of God, if he exists? Of course, you could argue that even if we can't know other minds directly, God can. I think the question of whether God can directly know our minds or experiences is actually somewhat controversial--see this article on whether an omnipotent being could share experiences like fear and frustration. But even if we assume God can directly know our minds, and thus that our minds can be "objects" for him, wouldn't God also be able to directly know his own mind and thus treat himself as an "object" as well? It's like how infinite sets can contain equally large infinite sets as subsets of themselves--for example, the set of all odd numbers is just as large as the set of all integers. Aristotle viewed God as an entity eternally contemplating its own perfect essence, and even if modern Christians don't see God as only contemplating himself as Aristotle did, wouldn't most of them say God is capable of contemplating himself, among other things? Jesse: Both would presumably be equally immaterial. yguy: I'm not sure that's a valid presumption. Souls may be less material than bodies, but God may be even less so. IOW, to use binary logic in this case is questionable. I believe it was in "The Great Divorce" that C.S. Lewis addressed this. Ok, but do you think immateriality/materiality is relevant to whether something is an "object"? It seems like the answer is "no", given your earlier answers. Your logic about objecthood is certainly quite binary if you're saying that all objects must have a cause and that God is the only uncaused entity in existence. It seems to me that your reasoning here is actually pretty circular. You want to get to the conclusion that everything except God requires a cause, so you say that somehow logic demonstrates that all "objects" must have a cause, but God is not an object. But I don't see that you've given any independent criteria for deciding whether something is an object--it seems like you're just saying "everything is an object, except in the special case of God." If that's your definition of object, then the argument that "all objects must have a cause, therefore only God can be uncaused" is pure question-begging. |
04-26-2003, 11:55 AM | #60 | |
Banned
Join Date: Jun 2002
Location: Tallahassee, FL Reality Adventurer
Posts: 5,276
|
Quote:
Starboy |
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|