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Old 01-31-2003, 09:49 AM   #91
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Originally posted by Aerion
As Loren and I both pointed out, in situations where immigration was voluntary, those more industrious would have gone voluntarily while the least industrious people would have stayed behind.
If they were the most industrious then how come they weren't able to compete with all those less industrious ones that stayed behind?

Isn't it more likely that the reason they were starving in the first place was down to their un-industriousness?

The vast majority of early immigrants were virtually illiterate and left (or were thrown out) for religious reasons (i.e to avoid persecution from those they had just lost a war too) or they left to avoid prosecution for crimes or because they had lost everything they owned due to bad investments.

When they arrived in the US they went to work for those same rich bastards back home who were damn quick to realise the opportunities in carving up the new world between them.

Follow any of the leading families today back to their roots and you probably won't find any industrious poor immigrants but either moneyed high class European families or one of the families born out of the industrial revolution (with a few exceptions).

Amen-Moses
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Old 02-01-2003, 07:02 AM   #92
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Quote:
Originally posted by Aerion
.....
Perhaps your misunderstanding this part of my point is the reason you reacted as you did to this original post. My opinion on this is exactly why I AM NOT an elitist or a racist. The history of emigrants to America PROVES that the worlds starving poor are not genetically inferior.
Still waiting for you to back up your claim tha "industriousness" is genetically based.

BTW, do you see a difference in "genetic pool" between the black slaves (imported involuntarily) and those supposedly industustrious immigrants?

A flow-on effect for "a dozen generations", perhaps ?

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