Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Crazy Liz · 12-27-2004, 12:42 PM

ISTM KJV-onlyism stems from a particularly strict view of scriptural inerrantism. If the scriptures are literally factual and without error (meaning factual error) then you have a problem if there is any variance among translations. Both could not possibly be true with the same degree of precision.

I find it quite interesting how much this view of inerrancy seems to be based on a view of truth that is extremely modernistic and materialistic, although fundamentalists love to rail against modernism and materialism. Actually, they simply define these words differently from their philosophical definitions.

If the scriptures are completely without error at a FACTUAL and VERBAL level, there is no room for more than one translation.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Knurd

We believed that "God wrote only one Bible!" And of course, we had it.
The thought goes like this: God inspired the Bible, every word, every letter, every punctuation mark. It was accurate in doctrine, history, and science. Since God went to all the trouble to make a perfect book he surely preserved it. No error could creep in because God preserved his book. Of course when it was translated into English it also had to be perfect. It made no sense to us that we'd have a perfect text in Hebrew and Greek and an imperfect text in English. So the 1611 KJV had to be perfect (sometimes they'd waffle a little bit on this one - perfect on anything that counted).

If factual and verbal inerrancy is the necessary foundation of your whole belief system, you must reason backwards in this way.

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