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02-12-2012, 12:58 AM | #91 |
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Liguistically one can easily see the coen bros version dates to Shakespearian times
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02-12-2012, 01:02 AM | #92 |
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It's just plain silly to insist that some decree got passed in 70 AD which instituted the use of the term rabbi.
Its the kind of ridiculous nonsense one expects from religious ppl not rationalists. Xtian theology is more than absurd. We dont need to argue every point as though it mattered. By doing so we concede ground to them we dont have to, and that its unhelpful to Sceptics are far too intimidated by the claims of xtianity. That is the problem. Sceptics are far too concerned that the theology might just be right. |
02-12-2012, 03:14 AM | #93 | ||
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02-12-2012, 03:56 AM | #94 |
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The source is wrong. Hillel is never referred to as rabbi in any Talmudic sources, and Rabban Yochanan ben Zakkai is also never called rabbi. I have no idea who Tracey Rich is - the person who runs that Jewfaq website.
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02-12-2012, 10:10 AM | #95 | ||
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From Solomon Schechter's book
Quote:
It also says that the teaching of the Apostle Paul, the antinomian consequences of which became so manifest during the second century, may have brought about a growing prejudice against all allegoric explanations of the scriptures [2] Note 2--- See R . Eleazarb. Jose of Galilee, where we read that the Mashal (allegoric interpretation) was only used in the prophets and in the Hagiographa “but the words of the Torah and the commandments thou must not interpret them as Mashal”. It concludes that Quote:
Solomon Schechter, HENDRICKSON publishers, 1998 ISBN 1565632885 Pages 3-4 |
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02-12-2012, 12:28 PM | #96 |
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Good grief! Schechter's book is written for 20th century audiences.
That people are now familiar with the word 'rabbi' does not imply by his anachronistic usage that this usage would have been equally familiar to first century and earlier Judaism. This is about as inane as thinking that 1st century and earlier Jews were 'adventists'. |
02-12-2012, 01:30 PM | #97 | |
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Everyman’s Talmud Abraham Cohen BN publishing, 2008 Note 1 , page XXXII |
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02-12-2012, 02:11 PM | #98 |
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The question is one of -when- these 'rabbi' titles first came to be 'prefixed' or 'assigned' to these early figures.
One might as well indiscriminately claim that Adam, John Hyrcanus II, or Joseph Caiaphas were likewise 'rabbi's'. |
02-12-2012, 02:19 PM | #99 | ||
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Just what is meant here by "orthodox" jews. Does that mean "unorthodox" jews might have used it? I think you'll find that we are dealing with a very narrow usage by some jews and we can't just extrapolate this into the broader culture with any certainty. |
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02-13-2012, 02:04 AM | #100 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Mark 9:5/Matthew 17:4 Mark 10:51/Matthew 20:23 Matthew replaces Mark's rabbi/rabboni with Lord. The only places where Matthew uses rabbi in the same way as Mark are that both have Judas (ironically) addressing as rabbi the master whom he is betraying and/or the teacher whose message he is rejecting. Hence Matthew probably regards Mark's use of rabbi as meaning Lord/master rather than teacher. Andrew Criddle |
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