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11-20-2003, 09:20 PM | #11 |
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L: Paucity of gentile related material
M: I would add the baptism in here as well. and yes, the paucity of Messiah related material (d) is very important as well as lots of the other points you raised """"""Harmonization of several gospels? I think he was rather quoting & harmonizing from memory or by design."""""""" One example will not demonstrate this as he could have done this in some instances and not others. His Gospel material needs to be evaluated collectively. Vinnie |
11-21-2003, 07:40 AM | #12 | |
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Quote:
Within a mythicist context, the "messianic secret" theme serves to explain new information being introduced. It answers the reader's questions: Why is this the first time I'm hearing about this particular miracle? and Why did these guys from Jerusalem (i.e. the Pillars) wait so long to declare Jesus the Messiah or tell anybody about his missing body? I don't see any "embarrassment" about the disturbance in the Temple. I see a fictional event created to explain why the Romans would be motivated enough to crucify Jesus. |
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11-21-2003, 09:19 AM | #13 |
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Amaleq13 wrote:
Specifically, what historical realities do you think these passages represent? The ones I showed with a "S" mean "Mark" had to explain (and did explain somehow) the silence of eyewitness(es) on the items mentioned (here there was no historical reality). The ones I showed with a "E" mean "Mark" had to put a good spin on something "against the grain" heard by eyewitness(es) (here there were historical realities). Amaleq13 wrote: Within a mythicist context, the "messianic secret" theme serves to explain new information being introduced. It answers the reader's questions: Why is this the first time I'm hearing about this particular miracle? and Why did these guys from Jerusalem (i.e. the Pillars) wait so long to declare Jesus the Messiah or tell anybody about his missing body? Actually I agree with that, even if I am not a mythicist. For your first question, the answer is, because the miracle did not happen, it was never told by the eyewitness(es). For the second one, again, because that was never heard from the pillars, because there was no empty tomb and "these guys in Jerusalem" were never Christians. "Mark" invented (among many other things) the empty tomb, all the extraordinary miracles, and Peter saying Jesus was Christ. Amaleq13 wrote: I don't see any "embarrassment" about the disturbance in the Temple. I see a fictional event created to explain why the Romans would be motivated enough to crucify Jesus. I agree that event (with the "royal welcome") motivated enough the chief priests & the Romans to crucify Jesus, but I do not see why it would be fictional. Because "Mark" tried to apologize for it by combining two quotes from the OT, as to have Jesus fulfilling some scripture passages (explainig his actions). The problem? This combination of scriptures do not fit what Jesus is reported to have done in the temple: >> "Mark" tried to put a theological spin about Jesus' actions in the temple: Mk11:17 "... he said, "Is it not written: "`My house will be called a house of prayer for all nations,'? But you have made it a `den of robbers.'"" First, the quote comes from two different sources: "My house [the temple] will be called a house of prayer for all nations" is part of Isa56:7. But "den of robbers" is from: Jer7:11 "Has this house, which bears my Name, become a den of robbers to you? ..." But here, the robbers are not the merchants in the temple, but Jewish sinners who did horrible deeds (including stealing) outside and then felt "safe" because they would visit the temple afterwards: Jer7:9-10 "`Will you steal and murder, commit adultery and perjury, burn incense to Baal and follow other gods you have not known, and then come and stand before me in this house, which bears my Name, and say, "We are safe"--safe to do all these detestable things? [no mention here of merchant's activities in the temple! No mention in the "Jesus' disturbance" of Jewish criminals/sinners using the holy place as a spiritual refuge!]" Isa56:7/Jer7:9-11 (meaning, wording and "thrust") is so much irrelevant (relative to Mk11:15-16) that it cannot be considered the basis for Mark's narration of Jesus' disturbance. It is rather an awkward justification of Jesus' acts through some "reverse midrashism" (= attempt to explain an embarrassing fact as enactment of a scripture passage/prophecy). << However I have good reason to think that "Jesus riding the donkey" is totally fictional and meant to explain why suddenly Jesus would be acclaimed as "King" when he approached Jerusalem. Everything above is explained with details on this page: http://www.concentric.net/~Mullerb/hjes3.shtml Best regards, Bernard |
11-21-2003, 09:33 AM | #14 |
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Vinnie wrote:
L: Paucity of gentile related material M: I would add the baptism in here as well. Ya, that would be valid, but I do not think it is as clear-cut as my other examples. For the baptism, I do not see "Mark" making excuses that Jesus did not need it. But "Matthew" did, and "John" dropped it. Vinnie wrote: """"""Harmonization of several gospels? I think he was rather quoting & harmonizing from memory or by design."""""""" One example will not demonstrate this as he could have done this in some instances and not others. His Gospel material needs to be evaluated collectively. Well, Justin knew of several gospels/memoirs. So I do not think he needed a harmony. Best regards, Bernard |
11-21-2003, 11:02 AM | #15 | |||||
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Bernard,
Thanks for the clarification. I'll offer some "mythicist context" replies. Quote:
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Regarding the scene of the disturbance at the Temple, you wrote: Quote:
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11-21-2003, 01:24 PM | #16 |
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Amaleq13 wrote:
quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- b) Rejection of Jesus in his own village (6:2-4) (E) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- This is obtained from the historical rejection of the Q prophets. That's a lot far-fetched and very remotely evidenced (I suppose you are thinking about the Didache. But where did you get "rejection from their own villages"). The Q prophets are one theory will no foundation, just speculations. Even Q is being challenged as early and/or as independant from the gospels. Amaleq13 wrote: quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- e) Peter not comprehending (as a Christian would) Jesus' Passion (8:31-33, 9:31-32) (E) g) Disciples not knowing what is meant by resurrection (9:10,31-32) (E) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- These seem to me to be more in the theme of the “messianic secret” rather than embarrassment over historical realities. The "messianic secret" is too often used as some magical formula (or aphorism) in order to explain what does not make sense. If "Mark" did not have to deal with memories of what disciples said (or didn't), why not have Peter as a Christian and as a firm believer of resurrections? Amaleq13 wrote: quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- i) Peter saying Jesus cursed a fig tree (11:21-24) (E) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- You think this is historical? Seems like a myth told for instructional purposes with the fig tree being symbolic. Where/why do you see embarrassment here? I noted that "Mark" had Jesus providing an explanation **away** from the cursed & withered tree, completely side-stepping any symbolic meanings for the fig tree, the cursing and the withering. Amaleq13 wrote: quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- j) Disciples falling away after Jesus' arrest (14:27) (E) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Again, this seems part of the “messianic secret” theme but also appears to involve “inspired” reading of Scripture. Again, the "messianic secret' as the explanation. But later texts, GLuke & 'Acts' will removed that, with the disciples & Galileans starting the Church of Jerusalem very soon thereafter. What "inspired" reading of Scripture passage? Amaleq wrote: Regarding the scene of the disturbance at the Temple, you wrote: quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- …I do not see why it would be fictional. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- My primary reason for considering fiction is that we know the Romans posted plenty of guards around the Temple courtyard where this event allegedly took place and it just doesn’t seem credible to me to suggest he would have gotten away with it. I do not think the Romans would jump the gun automatically if they saw a minor disturbance in the court of the temple, and more so if the disturber was surrounded by a crowd. Such actions would have to be considered carefully and agreed from either the local commander or the prefect (if he was in Jerusalem), and with some of the chief priests consulted. Furthermore, I noted Jesus in Jerusalem happened at a times of weakness for the Roman rule over Judea. So they had to be careful. Any intervention in the temple by Romans soldiers could cause more problems that it would solve. Of course, this is well explained on my website, more so: http://www.concentric.net/~Mullerb/hjes1x.shtml and http://www.concentric.net/~Mullerb/hjes3.shtml Amaleq13 wrote: Second, the fact that the author of GJohn feels free to move the story from the end of Jesus’ career to the beginning suggests he, at least, didn’t consider it to be an historical story. Ya, duly noted. But when I studied GJohn, I realized the gospel was developed over a long period (like 20-25 years) and the original gospel had the disturbance at the end, as in GMark. Later, it got moved towards the beginning. Why? Probably not to have the disturbance appearing to be the main cause of Jesus' arrest. More so that the resurrection of Lazarus had been added earlier, which the author wanted to be understood as the reason (indirectly) for Jesus' earthly end. My study of GJohn here: http://www.concentric.net/~Mullerb/jnintro.shtml Best regards, Bernard |
11-21-2003, 03:36 PM | #17 | ||||||||||||
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One can also find a wealth of material "against the grain" in Gone with the Wind or The Lord of the Rings. The whole "against the grain" argument pre-supposes that the story is history, it does not prove that it is history. Fiction goes "against the grain" as well. Creative writers are not ReligionBots or CultureBots.
As for Vinnie's argument on gentile material, the force of that one exists only in Vinnie's head. Let's look at some of this "against the grain" material: Quote:
You and Vinnie both miss this vital point regarding the argument from "against the grain." Where events are demonstratably fiction, the motive is irrelevant. From the historical Jesus point of view, so long as we can show it to be fiction, we need not worry about why it was constructed.The "why" question applies to another topic, the history of early Christianity. Quote:
Mark here is probably attempting an apologetic explanation of why nobody in the alleged home of Jesus has ever heard of Jesus the miracle worker. Quote:
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Then he asks the disciples:
...and Peter answers. The disciples do not indicate any lack of knowledge because they never answer here. Only Peter answers, for reasons that are obvious in the context of early Church claims about its own history. Quote:
Mark 9 is clearly fiction as well that continues the theme of Mark 8 and the general denigration of the disciples. As Tacitus once put it, a negative judgment is no indication of truthfulness in history. Your reasoning, Bernard, is entirely circular. In order to make this history, you first have to assume it is history. The reality is that this event is fiction. Note the laconic signal of place: "they passed through Galilee." Two fictional events, the Transfiguration and the Healing, take place just prior to this sequence. Clearly we are looking at fiction. Quote:
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11-21-2003, 07:20 PM | #18 | |
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In reply to my suggestion that Mk's claim that Jesus was rejected by his hometown was inspired by the rejection of the Q prophets, Bernard wrote:
Quote:
The contents of Q, however, do describe prophets being rejected in the various towns they preached their gospel. These prophets are understood, at least by Kloppenborg, to have called this general area "home". The addition of apocalyptic warnings to the text is understood as a reaction to that rejection. In actuality, Mark would only have to be familiar with prophets, in general, who no doubt had less success gaining credibility among those who had known them their whole lives. I would expect the "act" worked best with an audience that had no prior knowledge of the "prophet". Think John Edward's babysitter believes he can talk to the dead? I don't think I need to add anything more to what Vorkosigan has said except that I consider your inconsistent acceptance of the "messianic secret" as an explanation for new material to be arbitrary. |
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11-29-2003, 01:02 PM | #19 |
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Hi all
J P Holding has entered into a discussion with me in a Theologyweb Thread. He promises a forthcoming parody demolition of my page PTET answers Tektonics. Just in case you're interested PTET |
11-30-2003, 06:21 PM | #20 | |||
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Re: PTET answers Tektonics
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After checking the claims ofor myself, I found that a lot of these parallels simply have no basis in fact. Alternatively, I admit I've found some that do. In your article http://ptet.dubar.com/christian-paganism.html#RK, you said: Quote:
Some contenders are: (1) Mithra will return to judge, but he was a god, and not born as a man, nor does he die in the myths. (2) Zoroaster wasn't a god, and died quite old. But it is "one from his seed" that will return to judge. Do you have any parallel that is closer than these? You also said: Quote:
The Trinity is Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva. Brahma is basically the supreme guy, and everything else is an aspect of him. Krishna is an avatar of Vishnu, so there is a parallel to the "second person of a trinity", at one level at least. To my mind, it doesn't seem to represent copying though - what do you think? Krishna was killed when he was shot in the foot by an arrow (mistaken for a deer!) I'm not sure "resurrection" is the right word to use, but it is true he then went to heaven. The best thing to do is actually check these things out for yourself, as I have done. I suggest you check the list of parallels in the religioustolerence website at http://www.religioustolerance.org/chr_jckr1.htm against an actual hindu website, and then see how many are actually valid. You may be surprised at the result. I'd be interested in hearing what you find out. Here is a good link to get you started: http://www.hindu-mythology.com/html/krishna.htm |
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