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Old 12-20-2005, 02:44 AM   #31
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Do you have some rule of thumb that the reader can use to determine what the words in the bible mean?
Context most certainly helps, as does patristic exegesis.
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Old 12-20-2005, 02:46 AM   #32
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Originally Posted by Chili
I think it is right on.
Given that it is the longstanding theology of the one true Orthodox faith, it most certainly is right on.
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Old 12-20-2005, 07:33 AM   #33
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Oh, I know it is. We just have the filioque to keep fire handy but not to set the world on fire.
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Old 12-20-2005, 09:01 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
Context most certainly helps, as does patristic exegesis.
So you are saying that you have no method of interpreting the scriptures--that, for dubious passages, you depend on the interpretations made by others.

Am I reading your correctly?
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Old 12-20-2005, 04:33 PM   #35
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
So you are saying that you have no method of interpreting the scriptures--that, for dubious passages, you depend on the interpretations made by others.

Am I reading your correctly?
I'll have you know John that and infillble interpretation exists.

If it is possible that our eyes are opened towards scripture reading, the slippery slope argument dictates infallibility with the only limitation that our eyes are not opened far enough.
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Old 12-20-2005, 07:08 PM   #36
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Am I reading your correctly?
Once again, you are reading me incorrectly. In order to discern the meaning of Scripture, we must look toward the consensus of the saints and theologians of the early church. This is because they were the closest in proximity and time to the original authors. Individual interpretation is meaningless if not supported by 2,000 years of Christian tradition.
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Old 12-20-2005, 10:47 PM   #37
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Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
Once again, you are reading me incorrectly. In order to discern the meaning of Scripture, we must look toward the consensus of the saints and theologians of the early church. This is because they were the closest in proximity and time to the original authors. Individual interpretation is meaningless if not supported by 2,000 years of Christian tradition.
But what do we do when the saints and theologians differ?

And why, some five hundred years ago was there an enormous and far-reaching Christian movement which said exactly the opposite of what you are saying here, viz., that individual interpretation is the only way of being a true Christian?
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Old 12-20-2005, 11:55 PM   #38
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Was that protestant by any chance?
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Old 12-21-2005, 02:57 AM   #39
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
But what do we do when the saints and theologians differ?
Look to where the majority shared common ground, of course. This is exactly why I used the word 'consensus'.

Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
And why, some five hundred years ago was there an enormous and far-reaching Christian movement which said exactly the opposite of what you are saying here, viz., that individual interpretation is the only way of being a true Christian?
The original inspiration of the Reformation was not theological in nature but a protest of the Roman Church's hypocrisy in its actions. The Orthodox Church never contrived the concept of purgatory for the purpose of selling indulgences and therefore avoided such a conflict.
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Old 12-21-2005, 07:36 AM   #40
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
And why, some five hundred years ago was there an enormous and far-reaching Christian movement which said exactly the opposite of what you are saying here, viz., that individual interpretation is the only way of being a true Christian?
Quote:
OF: The original inspiration of the Reformation was not theological in nature but a protest of the Roman Church's hypocrisy in its actions. The Orthodox Church never contrived the concept of purgatory for the purpose of selling indulgences and therefore avoided such a conflict.
An intriguing answer to some other question.

Let's try it again.

"Individual interpretation is meaningless if not supported by 2,000 years of Christian tradition."

Vast numbers of Christians, perhaps a majority, believe very firmly in individual interpretation.

Are you saying they are just plain wrong? Or are you saying they really don't believe in individual interpretation?

Please try to answer the question.

Thank you.



Quote:
OF: The original inspiration of the Reformation was not theological in nature but a protest of the Roman Church's hypocrisy in its actions. The Orthodox Church never contrived the concept of purgatory for the purpose of selling indulgences and therefore avoided such a conflict.
An intriguing answer to some other question
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