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Old 09-29-2005, 05:54 AM   #31
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Default The Theory of Hijacking Pagans

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...it had previously been brought in by earlier pagan converts.
This has been the whole point: Christianity lacked a logos concept! the concept came from the pagans or with the pagans. Whether new pagan converts encouraged it, or subconsciously imported it as opposed to the Jewish converts finding it attractive really is something you cannot prove.

The important thing is that Christianity adopted the concept from the pagans. adding the word "earlier" to converts does not change the fact that they adopted it. The Hellenistic era only had Judaism and paganism from whose interaction Christianity was born.
But I can cut you loose on this one. I think you have enough problems as it is.

Quote:
But I'm saying that they didn't adopt it for the purpose of re-imaging Christianity. They already held that belief, as it had previously been brought in by earlier pagan converts.
You are crystal clear.
[And please get rid of the word "adopt" and explain that when you write "re-imaging", you mean internal recycling of Christian concepts and shifts in emphasis alone without co-optation of any non-Christian concepts into Christianity]

Now, lets look at your new theory.
So, you are arguing that, way back, way way back, non-superstitious pagans converted to a superstitious Christianity and inadvertently imported the logos concept into Christianity. Then, later pagan converts decided to re-image Christianity into a non-superstitious religion and chose to do so by agressively marketing the idea that Christianity had the logos concept?

How do you rule out the idea that these pagans converted to a Christianity that lacked a HJ? Marcion's beliefs, for example, lacked a HJ - to him, God could never incarnate and could only be manifested. Ebionites did not recognize Jesus as the messiah. Philo and others believed in a heavenly man. How do you eliminate this riotous diversity and pin these "converts" to have only converted to what later became orthodox Christianity?

How was the logos concept a useful concept? How do you determine a useful concept in the tapestry that was early Christianity? Was the trinity a useful concept? And adoptionism? What about the perpetual virginity of Mary? And was the crucifiction a useful concept?

Lets not just throw words around.

Was this logos concept only useful for pagan converts? Does Paul use it? Why? Why didn't the author of GMark use it?
What was the role of this logos in Pauline Christology?

Answering these questions will make your position clear. Give it a shot.
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Old 09-29-2005, 06:06 AM   #32
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=Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
2. He writes now that Christians did not adopt the logos concept from the pagans...
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by TedM
I don't see this in the quotes you provided. I dont' see it here either: . Where is it?tedm
Quote:
Originally Posted by Originally Posted by GDon
I'm not saying that Christians imported concepts like the Logos ...
TedH, this is blatant misrepresentation on your part. Here what what Don actually said:
Quote:
I'm not saying that Christians imported concepts like the Logos to appeal to pagans.
Why didn't you quote the whole passage? In addition, I already addressed this in an earlier post to you yesterday. This is not a contradiction, and your attempt to CONTINUE to claim such is baffling to me if you are trying to be honest here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedH
And consider:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Originally Posted by GDon
They pushed the concept of the Logos to pagans since this was a concept already familiar to them
He is now arguing that the logos concept (among other philosophical concepts) was useful in re-imaging Christianity as a non-superstitious cult because it was a concept already familiar to the pagans and not because it was a pagan concept.
How does saying that the pagans were familiar with the concept negate the possibility that the pagans created the concept? It doesn't.

I now see why Gdon is frustrated with discussing his positions with you. You misread and misunderstand them and then claim contradiction. There is no contradiction.

Edit: I see Don has addressed some of this, I'll keep this post since a second point of view might be necessary.

ted
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Old 09-29-2005, 06:47 AM   #33
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TedH, I am going to attempt to butt in one more time and then let it go. I hope Gdon will correct any misrepresentation I might make of his position.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Gdon
...it had previously been brought in by earlier pagan converts.
Quote:
Originally Posted by TedH
This has been the whole point: Christianity lacked a logos concept!
It seems to me that this is your point. Christianity in the 2nd century didn't lack a logos concept, which is what matters to Don's point. It is irrelevant to Gdon's point against Doherty whether logos was part of the very early years of Christianity, I think.

Quote:
Whether new pagan converts encouraged it, or subconsciously imported it as opposed to the Jewish converts finding it attractive really is something you cannot prove.
Who cares? How is that relevant at all to Gdon's point?

Quote:
But I can cut you loose on this one. I think you have enough problems as it is.
It's good you are cutting him loose from an irrelevant point that YOU are bringing up. :wave:


Quote:
Originally Posted by Gdon
But I'm saying that they didn't adopt it for the purpose of re-imaging Christianity. They already held that belief, as it had previously been brought in by earlier pagan converts.
Quote:
Originally Posted by TedH
Now, lets look at your new theory. (?) So, you are arguing that, way back, way way back, non-superstitious pagans converted to a superstitious Christianity and inadvertently imported the logos concept into Christianity.
Where does Gdon say it was inadvertent? You appear to be putting different words into his mouth

Quote:
Then, later pagan converts decided to re-image Christianity into a non-superstitious religion and chose to do so by agressively marketing the idea that Christianity had the logos concept?

How do you rule out the idea that these pagans converted to a Christianity that lacked a HJ?
Where do you see Gdon ruling that idea out in his reply to Doherty?

Quote:
How was the logos concept a useful concept?
Why does it matter if WE know how as long as there is evidence that the 2nd cent apologists thought that it was seen as such?

Quote:
Was this logos concept only useful for pagan converts? Does Paul use it? Why? Why didn't the author of GMark use it? What was the role of this logos in Pauline Christology?

Answering these questions will make your position clear. Give it a shot.
No, his position is quite clear. You are looking for answers that clarify another position that he doesn't need for his reply to Doherty.

ted
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Old 09-29-2005, 07:14 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by TedM
TedH, I am going to attempt to butt in one more time and then let it go. I hope Gdon will correct any misrepresentation I might make of his position.
Hi TedM, thanks for that! You are correct, Ted Hoffman's questions are largely irrelevent to the issue being addressed in my original article. That's not to say that some of them aren't good and interesting questions, but I can't see their relevence to my position. And I must admit to being disgusted by his blatant misrepresentation anyway.

I'll reproduce that section of my article so that people can see what the fuss is about, and then it is probably time for me to let it go too.
http://members.optusnet.com.au/gakus...%20The%20LOGOS
Quote:
1.6 The LOGOS

Doherty believes that the apologists’ branch of Christianity that became prominent throughout the empire in the second century was a mix of Platonism and Hellenistic Judaism. In Doherty’s view, this ‘Platonic Christianity’ defined itself in ways which had nothing to do with an historical Jesus, and probably was not an outgrowth of Pauline Christianity, as they had almost nothing in common. [40]

Was there a "Logos" based Christianity separate from a historical stream? There simply is no evidence for it. There are references to the Logos and the Word in the writings of HJ authors as early as Ignatius [41] Justin Martyr and his student Tatian were among the earliest extant apologists to make the Logos central to their writings.

The concept was adopted by orthodox Christianity as well as by streams that were later declared heretical. For example, the gnostics had created their own ideas of how the Logos related to a historical Jesus. One point of controversy was whether the Word had become corruptible flesh, or remained in 'a higher state'. Irenaeus, writing 175-185 CE, says that some believed that the Word was not made flesh, but "descended like a dove upon the dispensational Jesus" before ascending again "into the Pleroma"; others claimed that the "dispensational Jesus did become incarnate, and suffered, whom they represent as having passed through Mary just as water through a tube"; still others that "Jesus was born from Joseph and Mary, and that the Christ from above descended upon him, being without flesh, and impassible". [42] But Irenaeus doesn't refer to any heretical beliefs that Doherty infers that the MJ apologists held, i.e. a Christ that never came to earth at all.

I suggest that it isn't coincidence that the Logos became a popular theme to be used in apologies to the Emperor and pagans in the second half of the second century. The pagans already had some idea of Christian origins by the 160s, and had rejected the Christianity presented in the Gospels as superstition. The Logos would have been a useful concept to Christians trying to re-image Christianity as a philosophical school. The Roman Emperor Marcus Aurelius (Emperor from 160-180 CE) discusses the Logos in terms that Christians would have found sympathetic:

Matter in the universe is supple and compliant, and the Reason (Logos) which controls it has no motive for ill-doing; for it is without malice, and does nothing with intent to injure, neither is anything harmed by it. By its ordinances all things have their birth and their fulfillment. (my emphasis) [43]

In an effort to stop the persecution of Christians, the apologists began to stress its philosophical validity, and attempted to appeal to the philosophers of the day by trying to find similarities between Christianity and pagan concepts (especially Justin Martyr). Athenagoras, for example, starts his apology "A Plea for the Christians" with the following: "To the Emperors Marcus Aurelius Anoninus and Lucius Aurelius Commodus, conquerors of Armenia and Sarmatia, and more than all, philosophers" (my emphasis) [44]

These writings by the "Logos" Christians were considered excellent apologies for the Christian faith by the apologists that followed. Eusebius notes that Tatian's Logos-centric Address to the Greeks "appears to be the best and most useful of all his works". [45]
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Old 09-29-2005, 07:25 AM   #35
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TedM,
I like your coming to GDon's defense. You sympathize with his frustrations and understand him.
So you say that my objections are irrelevant to GDon's criticism of Doherty and that I employ blatant misrepresentation to fabricate a contradiction where there is none?
Hmmm....Thats a good defense. You have done a good job.
Now, lets move on to other issues.
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Old 09-29-2005, 09:48 AM   #36
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Default Response to Gakusei Don

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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
TedM, I like your coming to GDon's defense. You sympathize with his frustrations and understand him. So you say that my objections are irrelevant to GDon's criticism of Doherty and that I employ blatant misrepresentation to fabricate a contradiction where there is none? Hmmm....Thats a good defense. You have done a good job. Now, lets move on to other issues.
Ted Hoffman, Ted M is a Deist. He has often argued against my posts in some threads much more than Christians have. He seems to be their defender, even though he rejects the Resurrection, and even though Christians believe that he deserves to go to hell. Strange bedfellows, eh? I don't get it. Do you?

By the way, you are doing an excellent job of refuting Gakusei Don's arguments. I hope that Doherty reads some of your posts. Maybe you can ask him to do so.
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Old 09-30-2005, 11:31 AM   #37
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Originally Posted by TedM
TedH, I don't know the ins and outs of all your disagreements, but I've always thought Gdon has thought things through very logically.
Like his claim that Jesus bodily rose from the dead, and his claim that you deserve to go to hell if you do not become a Christian?
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Old 09-30-2005, 12:22 PM   #38
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Now, about MF and Tertullian, MF's work is only one. And in it, he rejects the idea that a man could die to confer salvation to fellow men.
The Octavius is a dialogue; so to understand the meaning of the comments in defence of the Christians, it is necessary to look at the corresponding passage in accusation (so the French edition I looked at recently). Here they are:

[Caecilius:] IX. "...I hear that they adore the head of an ass, ... that they worship the virilia of their pontiff and priest,... I know not whether these things are false ...; and he who explains their ceremonies by reference to a man punished by extreme suffering for his wickedness, and to the deadly wood of the cross, appropriates fitting altars for reprobate and wicked men, that they may worship what they deserve."

[Felix:] XXVIII. "...For in that you attribute to our religion the worship of a criminal and his cross, you wander far from the neighbourhood of the truth, in thinking either that a criminal deserved, or that an earthly being was able, to be believed God. Miserable indeed is that man whose whole hope is dependent on mortal man,..." ANF

This does not seem to be the same as perhaps it has been understood. The accusation is that Christians worship a crucified criminal whom they have deified (in accordance with pagan practise). Felix evades the issue of crucifixion (i.e. that Jesus died in a degraded way) and just denies that any man can become a god.

It requires something more than the words say to treat this defence against accusation as a confession of disbelief, IMHO.

Quote:
These differences, IMO, set apart MF and Tertullian.
Carl Becker, "Der Octavius des Minucius Felix", SBBayer, hft. 2 (Munich, 1967), seems to have established to the satisfaction of almost all scholars that MF made use of Tertullian, however. This he did on philological grounds, by comparison with how MF also used Cicero and other authors. I regret that this 100 page tome in German is beyond my time and ability to translate and place online, or I would have done so. It's fairly diffuse too, so has no 'juicy bits' to grab either.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 09-30-2005, 01:03 PM   #39
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The importance of the Alexandrian Jews' (esp. Philo) use of Logos concepts to Hellenistic Judaism, the nature of Middle Platonism, and New Testament studies are vital. (If Philo is deemed to be a pagan, I will voice my objection here).

Here are some examples where Philo's conception of the Logos as divine mediator anticipate (or evolve into!) the Christian.

"And the same is the case with regard to the soul, the good things, namely food, he gives to men by his power alone, but those which contain in them a deliverance from evil, he gives by means of his angels and his Logos." Philo, Allegorical Interpretaion III (178)

"This rock, Moses, in another place, using a synonymous expression, calls manna the most ancient Logos of God..." The Worse Attacks the Better (118).

"... In this way in truth, it is that the Logos of God irrigates the virtues; for that is the beginning and the fountain of all good actions." The Posterity and Exile of Cain, (127).

"And these spring from the word of God as from one root, which he compares to a river, on account of the unceasing and everlasting flow of salutary words and doctrines, by which it increases and nourishes the sould that love God." ibid, (129).

"And the divine Logos, like a river, flows forth from wisdom as from a spring, in order to irrigate and fertilize the celestial and heavenly shoots and plants of such souls as love virtue, as if they were a paradise." On Dreams. Book 2, (242)

"For in good, the continual stream of the divine Logos, being borne incessantly with rapidity and regularity, is diffused universally over everything, giving joy to all." ibid (247).

In On Dreams - Book 1, (227-230), Philo argues that seemingly polytheistic apperances in the books of Moses are actually appeances of the Logos (e.g. Genesis 31:12-13 LXX). On this account, Philoe wrote, "...what he here calls God is his most ancient Logos...".

This is made crystal clear in _Questions and and Answers on Genesis , II, question 62.
Why is it that he speaks of some other god, saying that he made man after the image of God, and not that he made him after his own image? (Genesis 9:6).

Very appropriately and without any falsehood was this oracular sentence uttered by God, for no mortal thing could have formed on the similitude of the supreme Father of the universe, but only after the pattern of the second diety, who is the Word (Logos) of the supreme Being ... "

Jake Jones IV
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Old 09-30-2005, 02:26 PM   #40
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Quote:
TedH, I don't know the ins and outs of all your disagreements, but I've always thought Gdon has thought things through very logically.
Like his claim that Jesus bodily rose from the dead, and his claim that you deserve to go to hell if you do not become a Christian?
Wow. Johnny, I have never claimed either of those things. I don't know if the first is true, and I DEFINITELY don't believe the second is true. You should know by now that I'm one of those horrible liberal Christians who believe what they want to believe.

Ted Hoffman and Johnny Skeptic, I can't believe that you need to misrepresent me like this. Please stop it. You both should feel ashamed of yourselves.
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