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#52 | |||||
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Recent discussions on this board involving people like Jeffrey Gibson and Chris Weimer were long on personal condemnation and short on actual grappling with the arguments. I made an erroneous statement as to scholarly consensus about a relatively minor point that had nothing to do with mythicism, namely the authenticity of the Hebrews ‘postscript’, accompanying that with arguments against such authenticity. What did Gibson and Weimer do? Both of them ‘ran with’ that error to label me an ignorant charlatan hardly without peer in the history of charlatanism, but neither had a word to say in refutation of those actual arguments on the subject itself. Quote:
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I have spent the last three months crafting a lengthy study of the Epistle to the Hebrews (building on many years of study of the epistolary record of early Christianity), in which I not only put forward a thorough case for that document’s entirely “cosmic Christ” but address in detail major works on academia’s study of Hebrews (Harold Attridge, for example) to demonstrate its traditional erroneous methodology and reasoning in reading an HJ into it. It would be nice if academia would reciprocate in kind. Will any here who regularly dismiss me and the mythicist case take the trouble to investigate it? I don't hold out much hope, though I'll provide the link below. I have no doubt that in 66,000 words, Jeffrey Gibson (if he even deigned to read it—I wouldn’t expect with an open mind, that would be too much to ask) could manage to find a few statements which he could seize on to demand further evidence for, while avoiding addressing the case or the arguments I put forward. Such would be in keeping with his usual approach. But it would simply be another illustration of how established scholarship never comes to grips with a concept they have a vast distaste for—regardless of whether or how much that has to do with confessional interests. They would rather just heap scorn on the messengers of perilous new ideas. “The Cosmic Christ of the Epistle to the Hebrews”: http://jesuspuzzle.humanists.net/supp14One.htm (Oops, sorry, had to edit a mistake in the URL.) Earl Doherty |
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#53 | |
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Thanks. Since this is Minimum information I'd like to ask a few questions for clarification: 1) What exactly do you mean by "miracle-worker"? 2) What exactly was "Jesus" given name? 3) Can you give a region of Palestine? Joseph http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Main_Page |
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#54 | ||
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Since IHSOUS in the LXX always translates yod-heh-waw-shin-ayin or the shorter yod-shin-waw-ayin, it was probably one of those (Yehoshua or Yeshua, traditionally translated as "Joshua" in the OT, but it's the same name). No, but since no place outside of Palestine is associated with him, we can say he was at least limited to there. |
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#57 | |||
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I'd like to start moving towards identifying your Sources for this supposed Minimum Historicity. Regarding the above, presumably Jesus knew that he was tricking people? Did Jesus' Entourage also know he was tricking people or were they likewise fooled? Is your Source here people who were tricked? Quote:
So your Minimum historicity is better stated as there was a miracle-worker by the name of Yehoshua, Yeshua or Yeshu who had either a Hebrew or Aramaic name. What about a reference to Yehoshua, Yeshua or Yeshu's father in his name? Since these were common names isn't it likely that Yehoshua, Yeshua or Yeshu was referred to as son of ...? Quote:
Where do your Sources place Jesus? Joseph http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Main_Page |
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#58 | |
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#60 | ||
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I'm sure you have a Bible handy and can peruse the Gospels yourself to get a full list. |
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