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View Poll Results: How do you think the writing of the christian gospels *began*? | |||
It was based on first hand accounts of real events. | 4 | 4.94% | |
It was based on the developing oral traditions of the nascent religion. | 39 | 48.15% | |
It was a literary creation. | 22 | 27.16% | |
None of the above. (Please explain.) | 9 | 11.11% | |
Don't Know. | 5 | 6.17% | |
Carthago delenda est | 2 | 2.47% | |
Voters: 81. You may not vote on this poll |
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10-13-2010, 01:01 PM | #131 | |
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Andrew Criddle |
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10-13-2010, 06:50 PM | #132 | |
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spin |
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10-13-2010, 07:38 PM | #133 | ||
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When they are considered to exist for the purpose of measuring time. They may also have been thought by many to have an astrological significance, but this cannot be assumed. My understanding is that the ancient Hebrews as a whole did not look upon them as tools for astrological interpretation, but strictly for time keeping purposes. The Babylonians saw them as both time keeping phenomenon as well as entities affecting earthly events. The Greeks followed the Babylonians. The best source for this kind of thing is Otto Neugebauer, who has written several books on ancient astronomy, spanning Babylon, the Hellenic world, Egypt, Judea and Ethiopia (which seemed to draw heavily on Jewish Enochic astronomical books).
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10-13-2010, 08:01 PM | #134 |
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10-14-2010, 06:02 PM | #135 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Spin,
If I can find such examples (I have a couple books by Neugebauer which specifically deal with ancient astronomical observation as time measurement), then I am pretty sure Mr. Criddle can. If you are referring to something else Andrew has said, then I may not be following you. He is correct that ASTRON and TARASSW do not occur together in any of the Greek authors I was able to search at Perseus.org, As for Andrew's assertion that great significance can be given to the fact that there does not appear to be any other text, pagan or Christian, besides Matthew that connects star and amazement like Ignatius Eph 19, I'd caution that Matthew does NOT have anything corresponding in any way to Ignatius' description of the heavenly phenomenon associated with it. I'll bring up again Revelation 12. Here we have a "sign" (SHMEION) in the heavens that is described in a splendorous manner similar to that in Ign. Eph. 19.
In short, Ign. Eph. 19 has far more in common with Rev. 12 than it does with Mat. 2. While Ignatius otherwise does not directly quote Revelation (except the longer Greek version of Smyrneans, which we can dispose of for this discussion), it does seem he was in touch with a cosmic myth that is very similar to that found in Rev 12. MJers are always keen to find this overarching Christ myth, well here it is, and they have every legitimate right to press on in this direction. I interjected into your tit for tat exchange because you guys are getting too hung up on semantics and missing the point. DCH |
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