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03-12-2007, 03:06 AM | #31 |
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Fascinating discussion from spin & godfrey! If this is correct, it makes understanding the author of Mark easier, as we don’t have to envision him having direct knowledge of 1 Cor.
As to the argument whether the interpolation is Lucan or Pastoral, perhaps we should take into consideration Doherty’s view. As he finds this passage to be in concordance with an MJ view (taking into consideration that it is portrayed as a vision, of the night that Jesus was “taken up”), the Lucan ascription becomes unnecessary, even difficult. Wouldn’t a Lucan insertion have naturally created an apostolic tradition here? A Pastoral insertion also makes sense in comparison with the Lord’s Supper in Didache, which, whatever its date, also has a pastoral motivation. |
03-12-2007, 03:39 AM | #32 |
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gnosis92, Paul didn't write that. That was written three or four decades after Paul. All Paul wrote was "Jesus on the night he was betrayed (or "given up," as the Greek word can also be translated) broke bread and ..."
If you think all these gospel events actually happened, and Paul uses this one to answer a question, why doesn't he refer to gospel events more often to answer questions and make points? Why doesn't he quote Jesus more often? Are you going to tell me that out of all those long speeches and wise sayings and illustrative parables and memorable goings-on, Paul and all the other epistle writers never again found any occasion to mention any of them? That all this rich, fascinating history was passed along solely by oral tradition until "Mark" finally thought to write some of it down? I think even GakuseiDon would agree that had Jesus' life really unfolded in the dramatic fashion portrayed in the gospels, filled with richly symbolic characters suited to a Greek tragedy, powerful, deeply moving, and highly memorable incidents, and quotable quotes galore (all recalled in loving detail through oral transmission), Paul and the other epistle writers would have been sorely pressed not to include more of this material in their letters, writing conventions or no. |
03-12-2007, 06:15 AM | #33 | |
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Jiri |
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03-12-2007, 06:47 AM | #34 | |||
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According to Paul, when was the time, and where was the place? When you quoted him, you said he was making a statement of time and place. |
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03-12-2007, 12:40 PM | #35 |
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Seems to be a misunderstanding. I was telling gnosis92 that Paul didn't write that long gospel passage about the Last Supper and the betrayal, all he wrote (assuming it wasn't a later interpolation) was a brief passage in one of his letters about Jesus establishing a sacred meal the night he was betrayed (or given up). The gospel passage was written by someone else a few decades later. My source is the New Testament and near-universal scholarly consensus on the timeline of New Testament writings ...
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03-12-2007, 01:25 PM | #36 | |
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Here is Ignatius: http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...s-roberts.html "And I exhort you to do nothing out of strife, but according to the doctrine of Christ. When I heard some saying, If I do not find it in the ancient Scriptures, I will not believe the Gospel; on my saying to them, It is written, they answered me, That remains to be proved."You can see how the OT, even in Ignatius's time, was being used as "the proof" for what was being preached. I think that there was a lot of contention in the early days about Christ's words and deeds that wasn't cleared up until the Second Century, where orthodoxy was slowly imposed, perhaps as a reaction to Marcion. And one of the ways to clear things up was by measuring their confirmance to the OT, as per my quote from Ignatius. IMVHO Paul simply didn't have a lot of material to work with when he came to try to prove that Jesus's death and resurrection had implications for the Gentiles. |
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03-12-2007, 01:40 PM | #37 | |
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03-12-2007, 02:39 PM | #38 | |
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Greetings gnosis92,
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Paul said nothing of that. Paul has no historical details. The Gospels with these details were written much later - no other Christian writer mentions these details until early-mid 2nd century. You are retro-jecting 2nd century details into a 1st century text that has no such details. The only elements that match are the NON-historical details. Your method is unsound. Iasion |
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03-12-2007, 02:47 PM | #39 |
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03-12-2007, 04:28 PM | #40 | |
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I was responding to another poster, I am well aware of what Paul did or did not say. Dating of the Gospels remains unknown. It appears most scholars date Mark toward the end of the first Jewish-Roman war. My point is that Paul was referring to the Last Supper, where the details are more clearly delineated in the earliest Gospel, Mark. There is no evidence of interpolation nor of any dependence of Mark on Paul. The earliest Christian community may have consisted of many different groups, Luke-Acts does not reference Paul's letters, and there is no textual nor any plausible reason to suppose Mark's author would have known of a letter Paul wrote to the Corintians. Paul's mention of the Last Supper is an example of "historical detail", there is no indication that his readers would ahve regarded "on the night he was betrayed" to not occur nowhere notime. We are not Paul's immediate readers. If Paul's immediate readers knew what Mark knew, there would be no reason for him to say more than what he said. Regards |
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