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03-04-2006, 05:49 AM | #561 | ||||
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03-04-2006, 05:54 AM | #562 | |
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03-04-2006, 05:59 AM | #563 | ||
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03-04-2006, 06:21 AM | #564 | |
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response to OP and #538
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"since the book of ezekiel contains more dates than any other OT prophetic book, it's prophecies can be dated with considerable precision. in addition, modern scholarship, using archaeology (babylonian annals on cuneiform tablets) and astronomy (accurate dating of eclipses referred to in ancient archives), provides precise modern calendar equivalents." [emphasis mine] it appears that johnny's original assertion (by way of farrell till) is disputed. *gasp* i take that back. johnny's OP was much more assertive. he claimed that it couldn't be dated before he backpeddaled into a more neutral position. |
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03-04-2006, 11:39 AM | #565 | ||
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A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy
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http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/on...cal-arguments/ Ontological arguments are arguments, for the conclusion that God exists, from premises which are supposed to derive from some source other than observation of the world - e.g., from reason alone. In other words, ontological arguments are arguments from nothing but analytic, a priori and necessary premises to the conclusion that God exists. Johnny: Typical of ontological arguments, the paragraph mentions God’s existence, NOT his nature. http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/de...s-ontological/ Descartes' ontological (or a priori) argument is both one of the most fascinating and poorly understood aspects of his philosophy. Fascination with the argument stems from the effort to prove God's existence from simple but powerful premises. Existence is derived immediately from the clear and distinct idea of a supremely perfect being. Ironically, the simplicity of the argument has also produced several misreadings, exacerbated in part by Descartes' failure to formulate a single version. Johnny: Typical of ontological arguments, the paragraph deals with God’s existence, NOT his nature. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ontological_argument In theology and the philosophy of religion, an ontological argument for the existence of God is an argument that God's existence can be proved a priori, that is, by intuition and reason alone. In the context of the Abrahamic religions, it was first proposed by the medieval philosopher Anselm of Canterbury in his Proslogion, and important variations have been developed by philosophers such as René Descartes, Gottfried Leibniz, Norman Malcolm, Charles Hartshorne, and Alvin Plantinga. A modal logic version of the argument was devised by mathematican Kurt Gödel. The ontological argument has been controversial in philosophy and many philosophers have famously criticized or opposed it, including Anselm's contemporary Gaunilo of Marmoutiers, Thomas Aquinas, David Hume, Immanuel Kant and Gottlob Frege. Some of these opponents have preferred to rely on cosmological arguments for the existence of God instead. Typical of ontological arguments, the paragraph deals with God’s existence, NOT his nature. If you have some specific sources that deal with the nature of God, then please quote them. I just conducted about an hour of research at the Internet, and I did not find one single article that dealt with the nature of God. I will not do any more of your homework for you. If you will not quote any of your sources, I will assume that you do not have any confidence in them. If intelligent design is a given, it is your task to provide credible evidence that there is a necessary correlation between the ability to convert energy into matter and morality. Do you preclude a reasonable possibility that an advanced alien race has the ability to convert energy into matter. If so, why? If not, then if an advanced alien race has the ability to convert energy into matter, must they by necessity be moral? |
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03-04-2006, 03:26 PM | #566 | |
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From the American Heritage Dictionary: rewordPaul wrote X, and according to you he was saying Y. Unless Y is a statement using the same words in the same sequence as X, it is a rewording of X. Now, if I agree that Y means the same thing as X, then we have no problem. But according to you, it is the same thing, but no rewording can be the same thing as the original statement. It can be considered equivalent if it means the same thing, but it cannot be the same thing. And it is up to you to demonstrate the equivalence. |
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03-04-2006, 03:48 PM | #567 | |||
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I will give you the examples you implicitly ask for, but if you will indulge me, I'd appreciate your answering a couple of preliminary questions first. One: Do you really have no idea what I'm talking about? Do you really have no clue about any incident reported in the Bible that a reasonable person might construe as a genocide either committed by God or committed by his followers on his explicit orders? If you will answer that question sincerely, then I'll give you the second, and if we get through that then I'll give you chapter and verse of what I'm referring to. |
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03-04-2006, 07:40 PM | #568 | ||||||
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03-04-2006, 07:44 PM | #569 | ||
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03-04-2006, 07:51 PM | #570 | ||
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